A woman died at the age of ninety. Her living children are nine: two sons and two daughters. The youngest of her grandchildren, from her son who passed away one year before her, is aged thirty-two. Are these grandchildren entitled to the obligatory bequest although they are aged thirty-two and above?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
A Muslim isn`t obligated to leave a bequest to his grandchildren whose father had passed away; rather, this act is recommended. Therefore, if he left a bequest whereby they get less than one third of the estate then Allah will reward him for that. However, if he left no bequest for them then they get nothing because their paternal uncles are alive and they are closer to the deceased and more entitled to inherit him. This is the position of the four schools of Islamic jurisprudence. However, the Personal Status Law didn`t adopt this position; rather, it gave them the same amount to which their father is entitled when alive but his father or mother are dead; provided that it doesn`t exceed one third of the estate. Therefore, we advise them (Grandchildren) to relinquish this share of the inheritance. If not, then we advise their paternal uncles to overlook the amounts taken from their shares and given to their paternal nephews. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it allowed for me to donate a flat to each of my children except one considering that the tuition fees I paid for the latter`s university study are equal to the price of the flat? In other words, he has received his share and this is why I`m donating a flat to my other children?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Yes, it is permissible because you want to treat them justly. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible to make up for missed fast after the beginning of the second half of the month of Sha`ban(the month before Ramadhaan) ?
Yes, it is permissible, but one who had missed fasts should hasten to make up for them. As for the Hadith mentioned in this regard, the prohibition is for offering absolute voluntary fasting.
Is the `Iddah (waiting period) of the divorced effective from the time the divorce took place, or from the time of registering it at the court?
It is considered effective from the time the divorce took place, and not from the time of registering it at the court.
