Is it permissible for one to masturbate in order not to commit fornication?
This is called committing the milder of the two evils such as eating a carcass in fear of death, and this happens when committing fornication is very likely to occur.
Is it permissible for the woman who is observing Iddah after the death of her husband to exchange calls with her relatives and husband`s family call?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It is permissible for the woman who is observing Iddah* after death of husband to exchange calls with them; however, when she speaks to non-Mahrams , she shouldn`t be soft of speech and she should be straight to the point. This because Almighty Allah Says (What means): "O ye wives of the Prophet! Ye are not like any other women. If ye keep your duty (to Allah), then be not soft of speech, lest he in whose heart is a disease aspire (to you), but utter customary speech." [Al-Ahzaab/32]. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
[1] The iddah is a waiting period that a Muslim woman observes after the death of her husband or after a divorce. The Quran says: For those men who die amongst you and leave behind wives, they (the wives) must confine themselves (spend iddah) for four months and ten days.
In life insurance with the Potash Company, enrollment is mandatory, and employees have the right to receive a cash amount from the insurance for surgeries and illnesses while employed by the company. Is the amount given by the insurance in this case permissible (Halal) or prohibited (Haram)?
Since the insurance is compulsory, then what the insurance company pays in return for medical treatment is similar to donation, and I pray to Allah The Almighty that this is lawful even if this service is deducted from your salary in return of it, so in this manner you take back some of the amount you paid in form of above treatment. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for the guardian, or the father of the child to hit the latter in order to teach him/her good manners?
It is permissible for the guardian to hit his/her child for teaching them good manners once they become ten years old provided that it is done mildly, harmlessly and without intimidation. Actually, such punishment is to be employed gradually i.e. after: asking, warning, and scolding. As for the teacher, he isn`t allowed to hit the student unless the latter`s father approves of it, and it is done according to necessity without intimidation, or harm.
