Is it permissible to make up missed prayers at the times in which praying is disliked?
All perfect praise be to Allah,The Lord of The Worlds It is permissible to make up missed prayers at any time even that in which praying is disliked. Absolute supererogatory prayer is forbidden to be performed at the times in which praying is disliked, and this also applies to Ihram and Istikhara prayers. However, there is no harm in offering prayers in Mekah during those times. And Allah Knows Best.
If a woman makes a vow to slaughter a sheep, and her husband is the one who buys it for her from his own money, and he says: "It is for you until you fulfill your vow with it," Is this permissible, or must she buy it herself from her own money?
If her husband gave her the sheep as a donation for the puprose of fulfilling the oath she made and was slaughtered by the wife or the husband on her behalf then the vow she made is fulfilled. And Allah Knows Best.
What is the ruling of Sharia on a Muslim woman who committed Zina with a Christian and became pregnant as a result?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Abortion is forbidden in Islam as it entails taking the life of a soul unjustly. Rather, it is one of the major sins; however, it is permissible only when there is well-established danger on the mother`s life; in which situation scholars gave priority to her life over that of the foetus, since this is, according to Sharia: "The lesser of two evils". In case a Muslim woman committed Zina (Adultery) with a Christian and got pregnant, if this did happen, then this question should be presented to the Iftaa` Committee with the presence of the questioner herself. She could also ask a reliable scholar face to face or via phone. If she gives birth to the baby, then he/she is a Muslim and takes the name of his mother; not the name of the man who was a reason for its conception. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it true that whatever is dry is pure even if there was impurity on it?
The impure material object does not soil (make impure) anything else unless the impurity is wet and transferable. But, if the impurity is dry or non-transferable, then there is no problem. Fuqaha has stated that: There is no disagreement between Muslim scholars that when a dry impurity touches something dry it does not make the latter impure.
