Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No. (262): "Ruling on Leasing the Ground Floor of a Masjid"

Date Added : 22-07-2018

Resolution No. (262)(15/2018) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Leasing the Ground Floor of a Masjid"

Date: 6/Dhu'l-Qa'dah/1439 AH, corresponding to 19/7/2018.

 

 

All Perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

 

During its tenth session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the question sent from His Excellency Deputy Director-General of Awqaf Properties Development Department Mr. Ali Al-`Esaili, and it read as follows:

 

I have enclosed a copy of the letter submitted by the residents of Al-Hiwaiah area (Karak) in which they sought permission to give out the ground floor of "Thaniyat Al-Wada` Masjid", located in the aforementioned area, for lease in return for a nominal price in order to use it for hosting various public occasions. I kindly ask your Grace to discuss this request with the Iftaa` Board to issue a Fatwa in this regard.

After deliberating, the Board arrived at the following decision:

 

It isn`t permitted to allocate any part of the Masjid for a purpose other than that which is beneficial to the Masjid. As a Waqf (Endowment), it is solely allocated to performing acts of worship and delivering the religious message of a Masjid, and not for hosting public or private events, because Almighty Allah, Said (What means): "(Lit is such a Light) in houses, which God hath permitted to be raised to honour; for the celebration, in them, of His name: In them is He glorified in the mornings and in the evenings, (again and again),- By men whom neither traffic nor merchandise can divert from the Remembrance of God" {An-Nur, 36}. This is particularly since the extra floors of a Masjid may be allocated to teaching the Noble Quran and the different Sciences of Sharia. They may also be needed in certain religious events, such as the holy month of Ramadan, Fitr and Adha Eids and the like. We may also lease them for non-religious occasions, without that being conditioned by the Waqif (Endower), hinders delivering the original purpose for which the Masjid was endowed in the first place. And Allah Knows Best. 

 

 

The Iftaa` Board (2018)

 

Chairperson: Dr Mohammad al-Khalayleh, Grand Mufti of Jordan

Sheikh AbdulkareemKhasawneh/ Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat/Member

Prof. Abdullah al-Fawoaz/ Member

Dr.Moh.Khair Al-Esa/ Member

Dr. Majid Drawsheh/ Member

Sheikh Sa`eidHijawi/Member           

 Judge Khalid Woraikat/Member

Prof. Adam Al-Qhodat/ Member

Dr. Mohammad al-Zou`bi/Member   

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?

When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).

What is considered a woman`s Awrah (parts of the body that must be concealed during prayer) while offering prayer, and is her foot part of it?

A woman`s whole body is considered an Awrah while offering prayer except the hands and the face. Thus, her foot is an Awrah as well. And Allah Knows Best.

What is the ruling on the ablution of one who washes his arms from the wrist to the elbows?

In the school of Imam al-Shafi'i (may Allah have mercy on him), washing the arms (hands) is achieved by washing the arms completely, from the fingertips to the elbows. Washing only the palms at the beginning is insufficient, as washing them at the beginning is a Sunnah, but after washing the face, it becomes obligatory (fard). The person performing ablution must wash his palms along with the arms after washing the face. If he does not wash his palms, his ablution is invalid and not correct. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?

A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.