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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(98): "Ruling on the Statute of Al-Ballorah Assakhina Employees` Association"

Date Added : 08-12-2015

 

Resolution No.(98) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on the Statute of Al-Ballorah Assakhina Employees` Association"

 

 

We have received the following question:

What is the ruling of Islamic Sharia on the statute of Al-Ballorah Assakhina Association?

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

Having reviewed the statute of the above association, the Board is of the view that article four of the annexed statute must be amended. It originally stated:

"A member of the association shall be responsible for paying the price of the commodity after examining it and agreeing with the seller on the price, and he shall not hand the money to the beneficiary whatever the case may be."

The Board believes that this article must be rewritten as follows: "The association shall deputize one of its members to purchase the commodity required by the beneficiary after examining it and paying its price to the seller. Once the association takes possession of the commodity, it shall resell it to the beneficiary."

The Board have demanded this amendment because it isn`t permissible for the association to sell the commodity to the beneficiary except after purchasing and taking possession of it so as to avoid the suspicion of Riba (usury/interest), as indicated in the following Hadith narrated by Hakim Bin Hizam: "I bought some food and made food and made a profit on it (by selling it) before I took possession of it. I came to the Messenger of Allah and told him about that and he said: "Do not sell it until you take possession of it." {Narrated by Ahmad in his Mussnad, vol.3/pp.402}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?

When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).

Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?

A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.

Is it permissible for a woman who has become pure before the end of forty days of confinement to perform different acts of worship? and is it lawful for her husband to have sex with her?

Once postpartum bleeding ceases and she is certain that it won`t happen again, she becomes pure, and so she should perform Ghusl (ritual bath), pray, and fast. She can also have sex with her husband even before the end of (40) days because the minimum of postpartum bleeding is a moment, and the maximum is (60) days. However, the postpartum bleeding for the majority of women is (40) days, but this does not apply to rest of them.

If someone bought a car from an interest-based bank and then sold it to another person, does the second person bear any sin if they use the car's price to pay the installments owed to the bank?

When the buyer purchased the car, it became their property, and the price became their responsibility. The bank acts as the seller's agent for receiving the payment. Therefore, there is no sin on the second buyer, God willing, as long as the bank does not impose an increase in the amount if a payment is delayed. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

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