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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(64): "Ruling on a Veiled Woman Uncovering her Face"

Date Added : 29-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(64): "Ruling on a Veiled Woman Uncovering her Face"

Date: 8/4/1424 AH, corresponding to 9/6/2003

 

The Board received the following question:

What is the ruling on uncovering woman's face for voters identifications causes minutes before voting takes place at polling stations?

Answer: All success is due to Allah

The Board is of the view that the permissibility of a woman uncovering her face, in general, is a controversial issue amongst the Jurists. The majority of them see that it is permissible for a woman to uncover her face because it isn`t an Awrah (private parts); whereas, some of them see that it is forbidden. Nevertheless, there is a consensus amongst the Jurists that it is permissible for the woman to uncover her face for litigation or delivering a testimony, and she isn`t considered sinful when required to do that for similar purposes.

Since casting her vote is tantamount to giving a testimony, a veiled woman is permitted to uncover her face, while not wearing make-up, for identity check at poll stations and she isn`t considered sinful at all. However, it is better that a female is assigned for checking the identity of veiled women during elections, and as much as possible.

And Allah, The Almighty Knows Best.

 

Chairperson of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Aldeen Attamimi

  Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

            Dr. Abdulsalam Al-Abbadi

  Dr. Yousef Ghizaan

     Sheikhb Sa`id Hijjawi

        Sheikh Na`iem Mujahid

             Sheikh Mahmood Shwayat

            Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia

 

Note: His Grace, Dr. Nooh Al-Qhodat said: "It is permissible for a woman to cast her vote, and that covering her face before people other than her husband and Mahrams (unmarriageable male relatives) is obligatory according to some Jurists. Therefore, a woman who sees that covering her face before non-Mahrams (Marriageable men) obligatory, she mustn`t uncover it for the purpose of casting her vote."

 

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it acceptable to perform the Aqiqah for a male child by slaughtering and distributing the first sheep, and bringing the second one cooked from the restaurant?

 

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.

It is permissible to slaughter the first sheep with the intention of Aqiqah (the newborn's sacrificial offering) and distribute it entirely [uncooked], and to slaughter the second sheep and have it cooked at a restaurant to bring home for the household. However, it must be noted that it is obligatory to give some portion of the Aqiqah in charity to the poor, even if it is a small amount, though it is preferable to send the food cooked to them.

Buying a pre-cooked, ready-made sheep from a restaurant does not suffice as an Aqiqah. However, if an agreement is made with the restaurant to explicitly slaughter a sheep with the intention of Aqiqah for the newborn, and then cook it afterward, this is permissible.

In conclusion, slaughtering the sheep and distributing it with the intention of Aqiqah is permissible, and through it, the foundational prophetic tradition (Sunnah) is fulfilled. As for simply buying a cooked sheep from a restaurant that was not specifically slaughtered with the intention of Aqiqah, it will not count as such. Conversely, if the restaurant owner is commissioned (Wakala) to handle both the slaughtering and the cooking as an Aqiqah, it is valid. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible to eat from an Udhiyah slaughtered on behalf of a deceased person?

Praise be to Allah, and prayers and peace be upon our Master the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is permissible to eat from the sacrifice (uḍḥiyyah) that is offered on behalf of a deceased person. This is the madhhab (school of thought) of the Hanbalis. In this case, the heirs take the place of the deceased as if he were alive, with the same rights to eat from it, give it in charity, and offer it as a gift.
 
It is stated in Maṭālib Uli al-Nuhā (Vol.2/P.472): "Offering a sacrifice on behalf of a deceased person is better than offering one on behalf of a living person, because the deceased is unable (to perform deeds) and is in need of reward. It is to be treated like a sacrifice on behalf of a living person in terms of eating, giving charity, and giving gifts." And Allah Almighty knows best.

My father has debts and asked me to repay them years ago, and I promised him I would do so upon his death — is it permissible for me to go back on my promise given that I am unable to repay them, especially since he refuses to contribute to repayment on the grounds that the debt has become my responsibility by virtue of my promise?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
The established principle is that a father's debt is to be repaid from his own wealth, if he possesses sufficient means. As for the promise made by the son to repay it on his father's behalf, fulfilling such a promise is strongly recommended, and breaking it is considerably disliked. Shaykh al-Islām Imām al-Nawawī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "Fulfilling a promise is emphatically recommended, and breaking it is severely disliked. The evidences for this from the Qurʾān and the Sunnah are well known." [Rawḍat al-Ṭālibīn,Vol. 2/P.278] Shaykh al-Islām Imām Zakariyyā al-Anṣārī, may Allah have mercy upon him, further states: "The reason fulfilling a promise is not obligatory and breaking it is not forbidden is that a promise is in the nature of a gift, and a gift does not become binding except upon receipt." [Asnā al-Maṭālib fī Sharḥ Rawḍ al-Ṭālib,Vol. 2/P.487]
Given that the son does not possess the financial means to fulfil his promise to his father, breaking this promise falls beyond his capacity — and Allah does not burden a soul beyond what it can bear. Since the father himself possesses sufficient wealth to settle his own debt, repayment must be made from his own funds. Should he pass away before doing so, the debt is to be settled from his estate. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on one who performs ablution or the ritual bath while having nail polish?

Nail polish must be removed before ablution or ritual bath so that water reaches what is beneath it, because it is a barrier that prevents water from reaching that area. This is based on the hadith narrated by Ali (may Allah be pleased with him) from the Prophet (peace be upon him): "Whoever leaves a hair's breadth of his body unwashed from major impurity, such and such will be done to him in the Fire." (Reported by al-Bukhari). And Allah the Almighty knows best.

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