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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(190): "Ruling on Turning an Old Mosque into a Centre for Teaching the Holy Quran"

Date Added : 18-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(190)(10/2013) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Turning an Old  Mosque into a Centre for Teaching the Holy Quran"

Date: (27/ Thu`l Qidah/1434 AH) corresponding to (3/10/2013AD)

 

All praise is due to Allah, Lord of The Worlds. Peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad, and upon all his family and  companions.

The Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies reviewed, in its eighth session held on the above given date, the question submitted by The Secretary-General of The Ministry of Awqaf and Islamic Affairs and Holy Places, and reads as follows:

I would like to draw your Grace`s attention to the fact that some old mosques are not utilized for offering prayers due to the availability of newly-built ones near them. Would you please clarify the Sharia ruling on turning these into centers for teaching Quran, or Islamic centers?

After careful study and deliberation, The Board decided what follows:

Muslim scholars are of the view that it is impermissible to sell, give, or change a Mawquf (an endowed property) because it is not the property of the Waqif (owner), thus he is not at liberty to run it in any manner that nullifies its original benefit. However, some scholars made exceptions where they allowed changing Waqf (endowment) into something else for the purpose of achieving benefit and preserving interest. This is the view of the Hanbali scholars, such as Al-Imam Al-Bardawi who says: “Each Waqf that does not serve its original purpose should be sold.” {Al-Inssaf/vol.7/pp.103}.This includes any factor that hinders the proper utilization of the Waqf . It is stated in {Al-Inssaf/vol.7/pp.103}: ”Not achieving the benefits intended by the Waqf due to damage or else, or even  the narrowness of the mosque is what is intended by the deactivation of Waqf utilities.” Not offering prayer in these old mosques-as mentioned in the above question-could be adapted to that which the Hanbali scholars mentioned in the former quotes.

Accordingly, it is allowed to turn these mosques into centers for teaching Quran to make them beneficial, provided that it is done under the supervision of an Islamic committee which ascertains meeting the aforementioned conditions stipulated by the Muslim scholars. However, it is better for the Ministry of Awqaf and Islamic Affairs and Holy Places to exercise caution in this regard by retaining rules of mosques and utilizing them (mosques) for teaching Quran at the same time, since there is no contradiction between the two objectives particularly in case of a future need for performing prayer in them due to crowdedness of other mosques. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board

The Grand Mufti of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, Sheikh Abdul Karim Al-Khasawneh

Vice Chairman of Iftaa` Board, Prof. Ahmed Helayel

Prof. Abdul Nnasir Abu Al-Basal/member 

His Eminence Shaykh Sa'id Hijjawi/member

Dr. Yahya Al-Btoush/ member 

Dr. Mohammad Al-Qudah/member

Dr. Mohammed Al-Khalayleh/member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Zoubi/ member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

A man insulted the Divine Essence; is it obligatory for him to perform Ghusl?

 
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
Insulting or blaspheming the Divine Essence (Dhat al-Ilahiyyah) constitutes apostasy (Riddah). The perpetrator of this grave sin must immediately repeat the two testimonies of faith (Shahadah) and sincerely repent to Allah the Exalted. It is recommended (Sunnah) for them to perform a ritual bath (Ghusl), though it is not a mandatory condition [for the validity of their return to Islam]. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on water present on the floor of a toilet/bathroom?

The default ruling is the purity of this water present on the bathroom floor. If one is certain or strongly suspects its impurity, then one washes whatever part of the body or clothing this impure water has touched. If one doubts its impurity, the default is purity, and we do not rule it impure based on mere doubt. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it obligatory to have the intention for each day of fasting, or is one intention sufficient for the whole month?

The intention is obligatory for each day of Ramadan because each day is an independent act of worship separate from the others.
The intention must be made at night before the break of dawn, as the Prophetﷺ said: "Whoever does not intend fasting at night, there is no fast for him." [An-Nasa’i] 
And he also said: "Whoever does not firmly resolve to fast before dawn, there is no fast for him." [At-Tirmidhi, Abu Dawood, and An-Nasa’i]
Whoever wakes up and eats Suhoor while mindful of fasting has made the intention. Likewise, one who firmly intends at any moment during the night to fast the next day has also fulfilled the intention.

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