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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(152): "Ruling on Tubal Ligation and Aborting some Embryos to Save others"

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(152) (17/2010)  by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Tubal Ligation and Aborting some Embryos to Save others"

Date: 2/9/1431 AH, corresponding to 12/8/2010 AD.

 

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may his peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

During its ninth session held on the above given date, the Board reviewed the following medical questions:

Question No.(1): A thirty-two-year old female patient, who has two kids, underwent endometrial resection due to recurrent bleeding. Although it is a contraceptive procedure, there is a possibility that a part of the endometrium could remain untouched. Therefore, if an ovum gets stuck in that part, it will lead to many complications, such as the placenta accrete. Thus, is it permissible to carry out tubal ligation for this patient as a contraceptive measure and to prevent the aforementioned complications?

Answer: The Sharia principle established by the evidences from the Noble Quran and the Prophetic Sunnah is that it is forbidden to use any permanent contraceptives that lead to ending one`s offspring. It has been reported by Bukhari and Muslim that the Prophet (PBUH) forbade self castration; therefore, the same rule applies to every means that stops giving birth completely or removes desire, even under the pretext of poverty or unwillingness to have children.

Urgent cases are exempted from the aforementioned rule (forbiddance); therefore, once it has been established by doctors that the pregnancy of a certain woman will jeopardize her life or inflict great damage to her health-only then-there is no harm in conducting tubal ligation.

Accordingly, conducting tubal ligation in the above mentioned case is permissible in order to rescue that woman from an imminent danger in case she became pregnant, as determined by trustworthy doctors.

Question (2): A forty-two-year old female patient who has three boys and two girls, and is thirty three weeks pregnant. She, along with her husband, is willing to undergo tubal ligation while giving birth in case the fetus remained in breech position and can be delivered only through a caesarean. It is worth mentioning that the fetus is inflicted with a congenital condition, which is the smallness of the left ventricle. It is a kind of deformation that usually leads to the death of the fetus after its delivery. She also suffers from general fatigue and high blood pressure. 

Answer: In this case, tubal ligation is impermissible because the pregnancy doesn`t jeopardize  the mother`s life and there are other methods of birth control which are easier, more available and don`t have complications that could lead to ending birth giving, according to the opinion of specialized doctors.

Question (3): A woman got pregnant by undergoing (IVF), or (test-tube-baby). After three months, it turned out that she was pregnant with seven embryos. Is it permissible to abort some of them by a lethal injection so as for others to be saved and delivered naturally?

Answer: If this large number of embryos causes serious complications to the mother or endangers her life or-mostly- aborts all the embryos, then there is no harm in aborting some of them to ward off these dangers. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Head of the Iftaa` Board, The Grand Mufti of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, His Grace Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh

Vice Head of the Iftaa` Board, Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

Dr. Yahia Al-Botoosh/ Member

His Eminence, Sheikh Sa`ied Hijjawi/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Essa

Judge Sarrie Attieh

Dr. Abdulrahman Ibbdah/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Oklah/ Member

Dr. Abduln`nassir Abu Al Bass`al/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Gharaibeh/ Member

Executive Secretary of the Iftaa` board, Dr. Ahmad Al-Has`sanat

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Summarized Fatawaa

I have a brother who is harsh in his dealings [with me], and many problems have occurred between us, and I do not intend to reconcile with him. What is the ruling of Islamic Law on that?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is not permissible for a Muslim to abandon or boycott his fellow Muslim brother for more than three days. This is based on the saying of the Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him: "It is not lawful for a Muslim to forsake his brother for more than three [days], meeting each other but one turns away and the other turns away, and the better of the two is the one who initiates the greeting (salam)." (Reported by al-Bukhari.)
A Muslim must strive to end such estrangement (hajr), so as not to fall under the prohibition mentioned in the hadith. If he takes the initiative to reconcile but the other party does not respond, then there is no sin upon him. We remind [ourselves] of the saying of Allah, the Exalted: "And let them pardon and overlook. Do you not wish that Allah should forgive you? And Allah is Forgiving and Merciful." (An-Nur/22). And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Someone wiped over his shoes after wearing them in a state of purity, then took them off and prayed without them?

Ablution is not invalidated by taking off leather socks or shoes after wiping over them. However, whoever takes them off after wiping must wash his feet only. If he prayed without washing his feet, he must wash his feet and repeat the prayer. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

I work overtime after regular working hours and may become occupied with my phone or the work computer for personal matters — what is the ruling on this?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is obligatory upon an employee to abide by the instructions and regulations governing overtime hours, and equally obligatory to uphold honesty and avoid all forms of deception and dishonesty. Allah the Almighty says {what means}: "O you who have believed, be mindful of Allah and be with the truthful." [Al-Tawbah/ 119]
Whoever is assigned to work overtime must be present at his workplace — even if he has no specific tasks to carry out at that time. In such a case, he should strive as best he can to spend that time in a manner that benefits the institution he works for. If there is genuinely no work for him to do, there is no objection to occupying his time with something beneficial — such as reciting the Holy Qurʾān, reading, or listening to educational lessons — provided he has already completed all the responsibilities assigned to him.
If, however, he does have work to complete, he must spend that time fulfilling it. He may attend to phone calls or other personal matters to the extent that is customarily acceptable, as long as this does not result in delaying or postponing his work. If he delays his work on account of personal preoccupations, the wages he received for that wasted time are not lawfully his to keep, and he is obliged to return the equivalent amount to the institution by whatever means available to him. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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