عربي
Home


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(116): “Sharia Ruing on Paying a Compensation to Partners“

Date Added : 28-10-2015

 

Resolution No.(116): “Sharia Ruing on Paying a Compensation to Partners“

Date: 4/9/1427 AH, corresponding to 27/9/2006 AD.

 

The Board received the following question:

In 1999, a person assumed operating a land in which he was a partner and which was irrigated free by a natural flow of a spring water. In 1994, the Water Authority of Jordan drew out its water shares in that spring in order to deliver them to residential areas. As a result, he was forced to purchase plastic pipes and a generator to pump the water to his land. In 2001, he and his partners filed a suit against the Water Authority of Jordan because of the harm inflicted on them. However, his partners didn`t cover any expenses concerning that lawsuit because the lawyer was supposed to receive a percentage from the compensation, so he had to cover all the expenses on his own. After filing that suit, his partners proposed selling their shares in that land to him, and he agreed and the deal was concluded. In February of 2006, the court ruled that the Water Authority of Jordan pays a compensation to the land owners because its value as irrigated land differed from its value as unirrigated land. On its part, the Water Authority of Jordan did pay the compensation and ordered the Lands Registration Department to transfer that land from irrigated into unirrigated. Is that person entitled to take that compensation for himself because he is the only one who was inflicted with harm while operating the land and after purchasing it as it was changed from irrigated into unirrigated, or is that compensation the right of all his partners?

Answer: All success is due to Allah

The Board is of the view that all partners are entitled to receive the compensation, and the above person`s purchase of their shares doesn`t deny them their right in the compensation since he did so after the suit was filed.

Besides, his partners sold him their shares after the price of the land had decreased. However, the Board sees that he is entitled to claim the costs, which he paid for buying the plastic pipes and the generator, from them. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

The Iftaa' Board

        Chairman of The Iftaa' Board

            Chief Justice/ Dr.Ahmad Hlyaal

                    Sheikh AbdelKareem Al-Khasawneh

Dr. Yousef Ali  Ghythan

                                                                 Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

                                                                 Sheikh Saeed Hijawii

Sheikh Naeem Mujahid

                                                                 Dr. Yaser Al-Shamali

 

Decision Number [ Previous | Next ]


Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible to pay the Zakah (obligatory charity) for settling the debt of a deceased relative?

It is impermissible to pay the Zakah for settling the debt of the deceased since Zakah is paid to eligible recipients who are alive. As for the debts of the deceased, they are to be settled from the estate before dividing it amongst the heirs, but if the deceased didn`t leave an estate, then it is desirable for his/her heirs to settle those debts if they can afford them. And Allah Knows Best.

What is the ruling on performing Umrah after the latest expansion of the Mas`aa (the passage between As-Safa and Al-Marwah), is it permissible, or not?

Yes, it is permissible to perform Umrah after the latest expansion of the Sa`y area since making Sa`y between As-Safa and Al- Marwah is already observed. And Allah Knows Best.

Should a pregnant woman who broke fast because of pregnancy make it up, and is a ransom due on her?

The pregnant and the suckling, if they fear for their health, may break their fast and make up for it, and no ransom is due on them. However, if they broke fast in fear for the fetus and the baby, then they are obliged to make up for it, and pay the ransom which is feeding a needy person for each of the missed fasting days. And Allah Knows Best.

I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
 
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
 

See More