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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(134): "Ruling on the Second Sa`y in Hajj-at-Tamattu

Date Added : 05-10-2015

Resolution No.(134) (14/2009): "Ruling on the Second Sa`y in Hajj-at-Tamattu"

 

Date: 30/12/1430 AH, correspondng to 17/12/2009 AD

 

 

All perfect praise be to Allah. Blessings and peace be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon his family and companions.

The Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies reviewed, in its fifth session held on (30/12/1430 A.H)-(17/12/2009 A.D), the question concerning the Islamic ruling on offering  the  second Sa`y, after Tawaaf Al-Ifadaah, by the pilgrims who are performing the Tamattu type of Hajj.

After careful study and deliberation, the Board determined the following: 

In principle, a pilgrim performing the Hajj of Tamattu must assume the Ihraam of Umrah first and perform all its pillars and obligations such as: Tawaaf (circling the Kabbah), Sa`y, shaving hair, or shortening it , then get into  the state of  Tahallul (freedom to take off the Ihraam or leave it). After that, he must assume the Ihraam again for Hajj, and perform all its pillars and obligations such as Tawaaf, Sa`y and else since Hajj and Umrah are two independent acts of worship which can`t make up for each other. Allah, The Exalted, Says in the Holy Quran (What means): “And complete the Hajj or ’Umra in the service of God." {Al-Baqarqh/196}. Therefore, the Sa`y which he offered during Umrah doesn`t compensate for the Sa`y of Hajj since each act of worship must include a Sa`y of its own.

The above is the opinion of the four juristic schools: the Hanafites, the Malikites, the Shafites, and it is the preponderant opinion of the Hanbalites. In the Harams of Mecca and Medinah, Fatwaas are delivered in line with this opinion based on what the Prophet`s companions, who performed the Hajj of Tamattu, did at his time. He (PBUH) said (what means): “Make the intention of assuming Ihraam for Umrah first, and perform all its pillars and obligations, then get out of the state of Ihram. Afterwards, assume the Ihraam again for Hajj and perform all its pillars and obligations. “{Bukhari}. Allah, The Almighty, Said in this regard (What means): “He must make an offering, such as he can afford, but if he cannot afford it, He should fast three days during the hajj and seven days on his return." {Al-Baqarah/196}.

It is incumbent on every Muslim to follow what has been confirmed in the authentic Sunnah and applied by the Muslim jurists because it is more cautious in performing acts of worship such as Hajj since a Muslim sacrifices the most precious to perform this great act. Therefore, he needs not risk his Hajj and violate the followed opinions of the Muslim jurists. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

The Grand Mufti of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, His Grace Dr. Nooh Al-Qoudat

Vice-Head of the Iftaa Board, Dr. Ahmad Helayel

Sheikh Sa`eid Hijjawi/ Member

                                                              Dr. Yahia Al-Botoosh/ Member

              Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Eesa/ Member

                                                            Judge. Sari Attieh/ Member

     Dr. Abdulrahman Ibdah / Member

  Dr. Mohammad Oklah/ Member

               Dr. Abdonnassir Abi Al-bassal / Member

Executive Secretary of the Iftaa Board, Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh

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Summarized Fatawaa

A pious man proposed to me and my father was hesitant in this regard because he is black, am I sinful if I accepted his proposal?

If the suitor is pious, color isn`t a drawback. However, try talking to your father kindly, so that he approves of your marriage with contentment, and that is better for you.

Does post-natal bleeding (Nifas) stop before forty days after childbirth?

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Yes, post-natal bleeding (Nifas) can cease before the completion of forty days. If the bleeding stops completely and its return is not expected, the woman has attained ritual purity (Taharah), even if forty days have not yet passed. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What should I do in order to wake up for Fajr (dawn) prayer?

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What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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