I work at a company that provides cash advances of 800 dinars, 1000 dinars, or 1200 dinars, depending on the employee’s years of service. An administrative fee of 40 dinars is deducted from the amount in the first month, and the remaining amount is repaid in installments. What is the ruling on this, knowing that the deducted amount (40 dinars) is fixed?
We fear that the deducted amount may be a means of circumventing interest (Riba). If the deducted amount is equal to or less than the actual administrative expenses, then there is no issue, as some scholars permit the borrower to bear the costs of documenting and managing the loan. However, piety suggests refraining from taking this loan under these conditions, as dealing with private individuals and companies is not the same as dealing with the state, which spends from the public treasury. And Allah Knows Best.
What is the ruling of Sharia on unregistered marriage in Jordan?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Aishah narrated that the Messenger of Allah said: "Whichever woman married without the permission of her Wali her marriage is invalid, her marriage is invalid, her marriage is invalid. If he entered into her, then the Mahr is for her in lieu of what he enjoyed from her private part. If they disagree, then the Sultan is the Wali for one who has no Wali." [At-Tirmithi, Hadith No.1102]. The Prophet (PBUH) also said: "There is no marriage without a guardian and two honorable witnesses." Related in [Al-Mo`jam Al-Basit for At-Tabarani, pp.6366]. Registration of the marriage contract at Islamic court is necessary for the preservation of rights and failing to do so is punishable by Jordanian Law. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best
Does bleeding from the body, such as from wounds, invalidate ablution?
Bleeding doesn't invalidate person's ablution. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for the guardian, or the father of the child to hit the latter in order to teach him/her good manners?
It is permissible for the guardian to hit his/her child for teaching them good manners once they become ten years old provided that it is done mildly, harmlessly and without intimidation. Actually, such punishment is to be employed gradually i.e. after: asking, warning, and scolding. As for the teacher, he isn`t allowed to hit the student unless the latter`s father approves of it, and it is done according to necessity without intimidation, or harm.
