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Relieving the People of Gaza is a Legal Obligation
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 09-07-2023

Relieving the People of Gaza is a Legal Obligation

 

"In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful"

 

Abu Hurairah [RAA) narrated that the Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said:

“……. A Muslim is a Muslim’s brother. He does not wrong, desert or despise him……..” {Related by Muslim}.

 

The General Iftaa` Department extends its sincere thanks to the Jordan Hashemite Charity Organization and the Royal Medical Services for their fulfillment of the collective obligation incumbent on all Muslims, and their continuous and organized provision to our brothers in Gaza - based on the royal directives - with some of the requirements of daily life: food, medicine, treatment, and clothing. This helps our brothers in Gaza to stand firm in the face of the difficult circumstances they face.

 

We urge all Muslims to cooperate with the Jordan Hashemite Charity Organization in sending aid to our people in Gaza. Indeed, it is Allah Who grants success.

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for a woman who has become pure before the end of forty days of confinement to perform different acts of worship? and is it lawful for her husband to have sex with her?

Once postpartum bleeding ceases and she is certain that it won`t happen again, she becomes pure, and so she should perform Ghusl (ritual bath), pray, and fast. She can also have sex with her husband even before the end of (40) days because the minimum of postpartum bleeding is a moment, and the maximum is (60) days. However, the postpartum bleeding for the majority of women is (40) days, but this does not apply to rest of them.

 
What is the ruling on the intention of fasting, where is its place, and when is its time?

The intention is a pillar of acts of worship; it is essential, and worship is not valid without it.
Its place is in the heart, and verbalizing it is recommended so that the tongue reminds the heart. Its meaning is to be determined to abstain from nullifiers of fasting during the upcoming day with the intention of worship and obedience to Allah Almighty. This meaning is naturally present in every Muslim on every night of Ramadan, so there is no need for obsessive doubts. If one says, "I intend to fast tomorrow for the sake of Allah," it removes any doubts.
Its time is from after sunset until before the true dawn.

What is the Sharia basis of the Udhiyah?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
The Sharia basis of the Udhiyah (sacrificial offering) is firmly established through the Quran, the Sunnah, and the Consensus (Ijma') of the Muslims:
1. Evidence from the Holy Quran
Allah the Exalted says {what means}: "And the camels and cattle We have appointed for you as among the symbols of Allah; for you therein is good." [Al-Hajj/36]. He also says {what means}: "So pray to your Lord and sacrifice [to Him alone]" [Al-Kawthar/2]. According to the most well-known scholarly interpretations of this verse, "prayer" refers to the Eid prayer, and "sacrifice" refers to the slaughtering of the Udhiyah.
2. Evidence from the Sunnah
Al-Bara' bin 'Azib (may Allah be pleased with him) narrated that the Prophet ﷺ said: "The first thing we start with on this day of ours is to pray, then we return and sacrifice. Whoever does that has followed our Sunnah, and whoever slaughters before [the prayer], it is merely meat he has provided for his family; it is not part of the ritual sacrifice in any way" [Reported by Bukhari & Muslim].
Anas (may Allah be pleased with him) narrated: "The Prophet ﷺ sacrificed two white rams with horns. He slaughtered them with his own hand, mentioned the name of Allah (Tasmiyah), and said the Takbir" [Reported by Bukhari & Muslim].
3. Evidence from Scholarly Consensus (Ijma')
The Muslims have reached a unanimous consensus on the Sharia basis of the Udhiyah, and no one among the scholars has disagreed with this. [Al-Sherbini, Mughni al-Muhtaj, Vol.6/P.122].And Allah the Exalted knows best.

Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?

A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.