Is it incumbent on a wife whose husband hasn`t gone to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for many years to observe `Iddah (waiting period) upon his death?
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhmmad and upon all of his family and companions.
Upon the death of the husband, a wife is obliged to observe the `Iddah even if he hadn`t slept with her because she inherits him. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for the woman who is observing Iddah after her husband`s death to sit with her daughter`s suitor, although their marriage contract hasn`t been concluded yet?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
A suitor who hasn`t concluded the marriage contract isn`t a Mahram*, so he must be treated as such. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* The period a woman must observe after the death of her husband or after a divorce, during which she may not marry another man.
* In Islam, a mahram is a member of one's family with whom marriage would be considered haram, concealment purdah, or concealment of the body with hijab, is not obligatory; and with whom, if he is an adult male, she may be escorted during a journey, although an escort may not be obligatory.
Are phone conversations between the two sexes permissible if for consultation, and within the limits of good manners?
Such act is impermissible since it renders hearts corrupt, and could lead to forbidden attachment. Allah, The Almighty, Says (What means): "and follow not the footsteps of the devil." [Al-Baqarah/68].
Is it permissible for a wife to refuse to go to bed with her husband (for sexual intercourse)?
It isn`t permissible for her to do so unless for a sound reason.
