Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Date Added : 19-02-2018

Resolution No.(251) (2/2018) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Wakalah(Authorization) for Buying a Vehicle from an Organization that Provides Funding is Legally Sound"

Date: 11/Jumada Al-Awwal/1439 AH, corresponding to 28/1/2018.

 

 All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may  His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

During its 2nd session held on the above date, the Board reviewed a question sent by one of the citizens in which he stated: I have bought a training vehicle through direct funding from the Development and Employment Fund (DEF). Actually, law stipulates that this vehicle must be registered in the name of a driving school owner. Unfortunately, shortly after the registration, the owner of that school passed away while there were payments to be covered. As is customary, once the owner passes away, the (DEF) exempts him/her from the remaining payments. The problem is that I`m the one who has been covering the payments, not the owner of the driving school although the vehicle is registered in his name. Do the remaining payments get dropped? Who is the beneficiary of this loan? Do the remaining payments belong to the deceased i.e. do I have to pay them to his heirs, or what?

After deliberating, the Board arrived at the following:

The framing of this issue differentiates between three cases:

Case 1 : Using Wakalah(Authorization)to buy real estate. This is when the owner of the driving school doesn`t buy the training vehicle for himself; rather, the true buyer had authorized him to do so. The Sharia maxim, in this regard, states that the authorized must act in the best interest of the authorizer. This is reflected in the following statement by Al-Subkhi: "Every authorized must act in the best interest of his/her authorizer." {Al-Ashbah Wa An-Nada`r}. In this case, the authorized-owner of the driving school-isn`t obliged to register the car in the name of the authorizer, nor to inform the party funding that transaction (Vehicle) that he`s just an authorized person, and not the true owner. Therefore, that Wakalah is legally sound. It was stated: "In a sales contract, it is not conditioned that the commodity must be registered in the name of the authorizer……and ownership of that commodity remains that of the authorized." [Durar al-Hukkam Shareh Majalat Al-Ahkam].

On this basis, if the seller-DEF-decided to reduce the price of the commodity (Vehicle), then that should be in the best interest of the authorizer as well. Therefore, if the (DEF) exempted the owner of the driving school from covering the rest of the payments, then the authorizer gets exempted and the latter isn`t obliged to pay the rest of the vehicle`s price to the heirs of the former. 

Case 2: A sales contract between the owner of the driving school (Seller) and the vehicle driver (Buyer). The agreement reached by the owner of the driving school with the (DEF) is a buy contract to his benefit, and not a power of attorney.

Case 3: The contract is a mere financial loan with usurious interest,  and not a Murabaha contract.

The ruling of Sharia on cases 2 & 3 differs from that on case 1.In these two cases (2&3), the owner of the vehicle must pay the remaining part of the vehicle`s price to the heirs of the owner of the driving school.

However, the Board has concluded from the above question that it is a Wakalah (Case 1). Therefore, the true owner of the vehicle (Authorizer) is exempted from paying any amount to the heirs of the driving school owner. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Chairman of Iftaa` Board,

Grand Mufti of Jordan,

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh

Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh, Member

Prof. Abdulnaser Abulbasal,  Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Esa, Member

Dr. Majid Darawsheh, Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi, Member

Judge Khalid Woraikat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Zou`bi/ Member

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it allowed for me to donate a flat to each of my children except one considering that the tuition fees I paid for the latter`s university study are equal to the price of the flat? In other words, he has received his share and this is why I`m donating a flat to my other children?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Yes, it is permissible because you want to treat them justly. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

A person is sponsoring an orphan and pays the sponsorship monthly. Is it permissible to pay this month's sponsorship from zakat money?
 
 
 
 
 

 

It is permissible to pay the orphan's sponsorship from zakat money if the orphan is poor and has no one to support them. The person must intend to count it as part of their zakat when paying the money. And Allah Knows Best.
 
 
 
 
 

A person owns sheep or goats and occasionally feeds them from the grass in other people's orchards without the owners’ permission. Is it permissible to eat the meat of these animals if invited to do so? Is it permissible to purchase from these sheep whose owner feed them from people's orchards without their permission, and can one accept gifts from them, such as meat or milk?

 

 

 

Yes, it is permissible because the one who is accountable is their owner, and the cost of the grass on his accountability. In addition, in order to be on the safe side you should abstain from eating his products, because his sheep case is as if they were fed on impurities. And Allah Knows Best.

I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
 
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.