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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(233): "Ruling on Producing Non-Alcoholic Drinks Using the Same Line that Produces Alcoholic Drinks"

Date Added : 20-03-2017

Resolution No.(233)(1/2017) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Producing Non-Alcoholic Drinks Using the Same Line that Produces Alcoholic Drinks"

Date: (7/Jumada Al-Akhirah/1438 AH), corresponding to (6/3/2017).

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

 

During the second session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the question sent from the Director-General of Food and Drug Administration, His Excellency Dr. Obeidat, and it reads as follows:

Could your Grace clarify the ruling of Sharia on the letter of the Jordan Company for Investments in which they demand canning non-alcoholic drinks using the exact line that produces alcoholic drinks after having that line cleaned thoroughly with water, steam and different sterilizers, and after every produced quantity. It is worth noting that the preparation process of both types of drinks is completely separated. Moreover, the Company is willing to test different samples from the non-alcoholic drinks to make sure that they are alcohol-free, and that the product itself matches the technical specifications set for it?

Answer: After deliberations, the Board decided the following:

Prudence in matters related to drinks is among the essentials of Ijtihad (Independent reasoning), and it relies on many an evidence from Sharia. One of these is that the Prophet (PBUH) prohibited his companions from storing non-alcoholic drinks in certain utensils, namely Al-Hantam (pitcher smeared with pitch) and the Gourd because they could cause the liquid to be become intoxicating. Therefore, this prohibition aims to prevent harm.

Accordingly, the Iftaa` Board is of the view that it isn`t permissible for any factory to produce lawful drinks using the exact production line of unlawful drinks. This is in order to leave no room for error during the production process and to prohibit what may lead to committing sins. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Grand Mufti of Jordan

Vice-Chairman of Iftaa` Board/Sheikh Abdulkareem Khasawneh

Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaaz/Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Hijjawee/Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Esa/Member

Judge Khaled Wuraikat/Member

Dr. Mohammad al-Zou`bi/Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Must a woman seek her husband's permission to fast a make up fast (qada)?

● If there is ample time to make up for the missed fasts, a woman should seek her husband's permission before fasting.
● However, if the time is running out—such as when only the remaining days of Sha'ban are sufficient to complete the qada—she does not need his permission and must fast, because Allah’s command takes precedence over the husband's consent.

Is it incumbent on a husband to pay the alimony of his wife if she had left him and stayed at her parent`s without his permission?

When a wife leaves her house, and stays at her parent`s without asking her husband, she is considered a Nashiz (wife who refuses to abide by her husband’s orders), and so she doesn`t deserve an alimony.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on compensating the patient in case of medical error on the part of the treating physician?

 
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
The foundational principle is that every mistake issued by a physician that causes harm to another due to his negligence or lack of expertise obligates him to guarantee liability and compensate the harmed party. The Sharia maxim, in this regard, states: "The direct actor is liable."
 
Ibn Qudamah (may Allah have mercy on him) says: "As for if he was skilled but his hand committed an error—such as exceeding the proper limit of incision, cutting in an incorrect site, cutting with an instrument that inflicts excessive pain, or cutting at an unsuitable time—he is liable, because it is destruction (Itlaf) whose liability does not differ between intent and mistake, thus resembling the destruction of property; and because it is a prohibited act, so he guarantees liability for its secondary effects." [Al-Mughni].
 
However, if the physician performed what was necessary in the most complete manner and took all measures of care and caution, but complications occurred that could not be avoided according to specialists, then no liability rests upon him.
 
Shaykh al-Islam Imam al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) says: "The cupper and the circumciser bear no liability if they have not been negligent, and likewise the veterinarian if he bleeds an animal and it perishes." [Rawdat al-Talibin].
 
Al-Khattabi (may Allah have mercy on him) said: "I know of no disagreement that if the practitioner transgresses and the patient perishes, he is liable. Anyone who undertakes knowledge or practice he does not know is a transgressor; so if perishing arises from his action, he is liable for the blood-money (Diyah) while capital retaliation (Qisas) is dropped from him, because he did not act independently without the patient's permission. And the physician’s offense in the view of the generality of jurists is borne by his agnates ('Aqilah*)."* [Ma'alim al-Sunan].
 
If negligence or transgression is established against the physician, it is necessary to compensate the patient or seek forgiveness from him. And Allah Almighty knows best.

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