Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(192): "Ruling on Eating from a Vowed Sacrifice"

Date Added : 22-11-2015

Resolution No.(192)(12/2013) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Eating from a Vowed Sacrifice"

Date: 2/ Moharam/1435 AH, corresponding to 6/11/2013 AD.

All perfect praise is due to Allah , The Lord of The Worlds; and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions:

On its tenth session held on the above mentioned date, the Board reviewed a question emailed by one of the citizens, and it reads as follows: "I have vowed to sacrifice a calf for the Sake of Allah. Is it permissible for me and  my family to eat from it?"

After researching and deliberating, the Board arrived at the following decision:

Eating from the vowed sacrifice is one of the controversial issues among the Muslim Jurists, because some of them say that it takes the same rules of the sacrifice (Udhiyah), where the person, offering it, and his family are permitted to eat a third of its meat; whereas, some say that it takes the rules of the vow in terms of being donated for the sake of Allah, where the vow-taker and his family aren`t permitted to eat from its meat.

On their part, the Hanafite and the Shafite Jurists have forbidden the vow-taker to eat from the meat of the vowed sacrifice. Kindly refer to the book [Asna al-Mataleb, vol./pp.545].

Whereas, the Malikite and Hanbalite Jurists have permitted the vow-taker to eat from his vowed sacrifice. Al-Dosoukhi said: "If the vow-taker didn`t specify a certain animal and didn`t specify that it is vowed as a charity for the poor and needy, then he is permitted to eat from its meat." {Al-Hasheyah}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Taking the above question* into consideration, the Iftaa` Board is of the view that it is permissible for the questioner to eat from his vowed sacrifice giving preponderance to the rules that apply to the Udhiyah.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board

The General Mufti of The Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan/Abd Al-Kareem Al-Khasawneh .

Prof.Haiel Abd Al-Hafeed /member       Prof.Abd Al-Naasir Abu Al-Basal

His Eminence, Sheikh Sa`id Al-Hijawi/member           Dr.Yahia Al-Botosh

Prof.Mohammad Al-Gdah/ member              Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-E`sa

Dr.Wasif Al-Bakri / member           Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/member

Dr.Mohammad Al-Zo`bi/member      

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Summarized Fatawaa

The imam recited a verse containing a prostration of recitation (*sajdat al-tilāwah*) but did not prostrate. After the imam's *salām*, a follower (*maʾmūm*) performed a prostration of forgetfulness (*sujūd al-sahw*) because the imam had not performed the prostration of recitation. Is it permissible to go against the imam in this way?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
There is no sin on the imam if he omits the prostration of recitation (sujūd al-tilāwah), even deliberately. The maʾmūm (the one following the imam) is obliged to follow the imam in the prayer, so if the imam does not perform the prostration of recitation, it is not permissible for the follower to prostrate, because the imam is appointed only to be followed.
If the follower introduces a prostration after the imam’s salām but before his own salām, in a case where there is no prostration of forgetfulness (sujūd al-sahw), his prayer is invalidated if he knew it to be prohibited. Otherwise, he is excused on account of his ignorance and his prayer is not invalidated.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Imām al-Jamal ʿalā Fatḥ al-Wahhāb: “His statement: ‘So the omission of the hayʾāt (the non-essential sunnahs of the prayer) is not compensated for by prostration; if one prostrates for any of them deliberately, his prayer is invalidated, unless he is excused due to his ignorance.’”
Since this issue is one that is hidden from the laymen, as it is among the subtleties of knowledge, and the laymen are excused for ignorance of whatever is of such a nature, and their act of obedience is not invalidated because of it, it may be said that the prayer of one who has not acquired knowledge of this issue is not invalidated, with the necessity of learning the rulings remaining. As for after knowing it, the prayer is invalidated. And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on praying while wearing shoes?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

There is no sin for a Muslim to perform prayer while wearing their sandals or shoes, provided they are free from any impurities (najasa). It was narrated that Anas bin Malik (may Allah be pleased with him) was asked: 'Did the Prophet ﷺ pray in his sandals?' He replied: 'Yes.'" (Related by Al-Bukhari).

It is stated in Fath al-Bari (Vol.1/P.494) by Ibn Hajar (may Allah have mercy on him): "Regarding the phrase 'praying in his sandals,' Ibn Battal said: 'This is understood to apply as long as there is no impurity on them; furthermore, this is considered one of the legal concessions (rukhas)." And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the correct point at which to raise the hands when standing up for the third rak‘ah (after the middle tashahhud)?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Raising the hands while saying the takbīr [when rising for the third rak‘ah] is a recommended sunnah, and omitting it does not affect the validity of the prayer. The proper time for this is after rising from the middle tashahhud, once one has fully stood up.
It is stated in I‘ānat aṭ-Ṭālibīn (Vol.1/P.158): "His statement, 'and rising from the first tashahhud' — meaning, this manner [of raising the hands] is also a sunnah when he rises from the first tashahhud, that is, when he stands upright from it.
Consider [the question]: when precisely does the raising of the hands begin? Is it at the very start of rising from the first tashahhud, or after he has reached the minimum position of rukū‘ [i.e., once fully upright]? The apparent, [correct] view is the latter — even though the outward wording [of the text] might suggest the former — because at the very start of his rising, he is still relying on both hands [to push himself up, and therefore cannot yet raise them]."
It is stated in ‘Umdat as-Sālik (p. 53): "If his prayer extends beyond two rak‘ahs, he sits after them in the iftirāsh position, recites the tashahhud, and sends blessings upon the Prophet ﷺ alone, without [mentioning] his family [at this point]. He then stands while saying the takbīr, supporting himself with his hands; and once he has stood upright, he raises them level with his shoulders." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on following the actions of the imam in prayer and how this following is achieved?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
The follower (ma'mum) is required to follow his imam in the actions of the prayer. This "following" (mutaba'ah) means that the follower performs each action of the prayer after the imam has begun it but before he has finished it. For example, the follower bows (in ruku') after the imam has reached the position of bowing, then rises after the imam has risen. The Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "The imam is only appointed to be followed, so when he says the takbir, say the takbir; and when he bows, then bow; and when he prostrates, then prostrate" (agreed upon, i.e., reported by both al-Bukhari and Muslim).
It is stated in Mughni al-Muhtaj (1/505): "Among the conditions of valid congregational prayer (iqtida') is following the imam in the actions of the prayer... meaning that following the imam is obligatory in the physical actions of the prayer, not in its verbal utterances... Complete following (kamal al-mutaba'ah) is achieved when the follower's beginning of an action comes after the imam's beginning of that same action, while the follower's beginning of the action precedes the imam's completion of it" — end of quote, with slight paraphrasing.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.