Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(192): "Ruling on Eating from a Vowed Sacrifice"

Date Added : 22-11-2015

Resolution No.(192)(12/2013) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Eating from a Vowed Sacrifice"

Date: 2/ Moharam/1435 AH, corresponding to 6/11/2013 AD.

All perfect praise is due to Allah , The Lord of The Worlds; and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions:

On its tenth session held on the above mentioned date, the Board reviewed a question emailed by one of the citizens, and it reads as follows: "I have vowed to sacrifice a calf for the Sake of Allah. Is it permissible for me and  my family to eat from it?"

After researching and deliberating, the Board arrived at the following decision:

Eating from the vowed sacrifice is one of the controversial issues among the Muslim Jurists, because some of them say that it takes the same rules of the sacrifice (Udhiyah), where the person, offering it, and his family are permitted to eat a third of its meat; whereas, some say that it takes the rules of the vow in terms of being donated for the sake of Allah, where the vow-taker and his family aren`t permitted to eat from its meat.

On their part, the Hanafite and the Shafite Jurists have forbidden the vow-taker to eat from the meat of the vowed sacrifice. Kindly refer to the book [Asna al-Mataleb, vol./pp.545].

Whereas, the Malikite and Hanbalite Jurists have permitted the vow-taker to eat from his vowed sacrifice. Al-Dosoukhi said: "If the vow-taker didn`t specify a certain animal and didn`t specify that it is vowed as a charity for the poor and needy, then he is permitted to eat from its meat." {Al-Hasheyah}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Taking the above question* into consideration, the Iftaa` Board is of the view that it is permissible for the questioner to eat from his vowed sacrifice giving preponderance to the rules that apply to the Udhiyah.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board

The General Mufti of The Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan/Abd Al-Kareem Al-Khasawneh .

Prof.Haiel Abd Al-Hafeed /member       Prof.Abd Al-Naasir Abu Al-Basal

His Eminence, Sheikh Sa`id Al-Hijawi/member           Dr.Yahia Al-Botosh

Prof.Mohammad Al-Gdah/ member              Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-E`sa

Dr.Wasif Al-Bakri / member           Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/member

Dr.Mohammad Al-Zo`bi/member      

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on one who vows to fast a specific or non-specific year? Are the two Eids, the days of Tashreeq, Ramadan, and the days of menstruation and postnatal bleeding included in them? And do these days break the consecutiveness if it was intended?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
If someone makes a vow (Nadr) to fast a specific, designated year, this vow does not include the days of Eid, the days of Tashreeq (the three days following Eid al-Adha), Ramadan, or the days of menstruation (Hayd) and postnatal bleeding (Nifas). Furthermore, there is no requirement to make up (Qada) these specific days.
 
However, if someone vows to fast a year that is not specifically designated (i.e., any twelve-month period) and stipulates that the fasting must be consecutive, they are bound by that condition. They must not fast on the days of Eid, during Ramadan, or during menstruation, but they are required to make up these days afterward—with the exception of the days of menstruation and postnatal bleeding, which do not need to be made up.
 
It is stated in Hashiyat al-Bajuri ‘ala Sharh Ibn Qasim ({Vol.2/P.606): 'If one vows to fast a specific year, the Eid, Tashreeq, Ramadan, and days of menstruation or postnatal bleeding are not included. This is because Ramadan does not accept any fast other than its own, and the others do not accept fasting at all. Therefore, they do not enter into the vow, and no makeup is required for them because they are legally excluded—contrary to Al-Rafi’i regarding menstruation and postnatal bleeding.
 
If one vows to fast a non-designated year: if they stipulated consecutiveness (Tatuabu’) in their vow, they must fulfill it; otherwise, they are not bound to it. Consecutiveness is not broken by the days that do not enter into the specific year vow (Eid, Tashreeq, Ramadan, menstruation, and postnatal bleeding). However, one must make up the days missed—excluding the time of menstruation and postnatal bleeding—immediately following the end of the year. As for the time of menstruation and postnatal bleeding, it is not made up, contrary to Ibn al-Rif’ah, who argued that it must be made up just like Ramadan.' And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on the ablution of one who cuts his nails, and is it permissible to cut them before the ritual bath for major impurity (janabah)?

Cutting nails does not invalidate ablution, and it is permissible to cut them before the ritual bath for major impurity. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on wiping the front of the head beneath the ḥijāb, and is it permissible to wipe over the ḥijāb if it was put on while in a state of purification (wudu`)?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is permissible to wipe the front portion of the head (nāṣiyah) with the fingertips. It is likewise sufficient to place a wet hand over a head covering (ḥijāb), provided the moisture actually reaches the hair beneath it — if it does not, it does not suffice. A head covering is not treated in the same manner as leather socks (khuff) and may not be wiped over in lieu of the head itself.
Imām al-Nawawī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states in al-Majmūʿ (Vol.1/P.407): "If a person is wearing a turban and does not wish to remove it — whether for a valid reason or otherwise — he should wipe the entire front portion of the head... The same ruling applies to whatever a woman wears on her head. If, however, he confines himself to wiping over the turban without wiping any part of the head itself, this does not suffice — and there is no disagreement among us on this point." He further states: "A woman is like a man in the manner of wiping the head... She should insert her hand beneath her head covering so that the wiping falls upon the hair itself. If she places her wet hand over her head covering, our scholars stated: if the moisture does not reach the hair, it does not suffice her." And Allah the Almighty knows best.

I bought an apartment, and I am saving money to pay the remaining balance of its price — is zakāh obligatory on this money?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh is obligatory on all saved/hoarded wealth. Once the total wealth reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah— equivalent to the value of 85 grams of pure 24-karat gold) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it, zakāh becomes obligatory at a rate of (2.5%) — even if the wealth is earmarked for basic future needs, and even if the wealth's owner is in debt. Debt does not prevent the obligation of zakāh, nor is it deducted when calculating the zakāh due, based on the general and unrestricted wording of all the Qur'anic verses commanding zakāh, which draw no distinction between someone in debt and anyone else.
It is stated in ‘Umdat as-Sālik, from the books of the Shāfi‘ī school: "If someone possesses exactly the niṣāb, and owes an equivalent amount in debt, zakāh remains obligatory on what is in his possession, and the debt does not prevent this obligation" — meaning, the obligation of zakāh on what is presently in his possession.
The ḥawl (annual cycle) recognized for zakāh, as well as for the other sharī‘ah obligations that Allah, the Exalted, has imposed upon Muslims, is the Hijrī (lunar) year. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.