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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(75): “Ruling on the System Applied by the Housing Fund of Jordan Phosphate Mines Company“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(75): “System Applied by the Housing Fund of Jordan Phosphate Mines Company“

Date: 22/3/1425, corresponding to 12/5/2004 AD.

 

The Board received the following question:

What is the ruling of Islamic Sharia on the system applied by the housing fund of JPMC?

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

The Board is of the following view:

1- Loans granted by the above fund entail usurious interests as indicated in articles (9, 15, 16, 17, and 18) and this violates the rules of Sharia pertaining to the prohibition of usurious loans, for Allah Says in this regard: “but God hath permitted trade and forbidden usury.” {Al-Baqarah/2}.

2- Deducting (500fils) from the salary of every subscribing employee as a contribution for social solidarity is permissible according to Islamic Sharia, because it is based on cooperation which is promoted by Islam. Allah The Exalted Says in this regard {What means}: “Help ye one another in righteousness and piety, but help ye not one another in sin and rancour: fear Allah, for Allah is strict in punishment.” {Al-Mai`dah/2}.

3- Deducting (0, 0015) annually from the value of the loan (as an allowance for services provided by the fund and for social solidarity) isn`t permissible in Islamic Sharia because there lies the reason behind the prohibition of usury. However, it is permissible to deduct a specific, reasonable and fixed sum in return for administrative services of each loan, regardless of its amount and repayment span since the effort involved is the same. Nonetheless, there should be no mixing between the sum charged in return for administrative services and that charged for social solidarity.

4- Housing and life insurance of subscribers isn`t permissible in Sharia because it involves usury and gambling, which are classified as contracts of uncertainty and compulsion. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izzaldeen At-Tamimi
Dr. Ahmad Hilayel
Dr. Yousef Ghyzaan
Dr. Abdulsalam Al-Abbadi
Dr. Wasif Abdulwahaab
Sheikh Saeid Hijjawi
Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia
Sheikh Nai`em Mujahid
Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh

 

 

 

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

The imam recited a verse containing a prostration of recitation (*sajdat al-tilāwah*) but did not prostrate. After the imam's *salām*, a follower (*maʾmūm*) performed a prostration of forgetfulness (*sujūd al-sahw*) because the imam had not performed the prostration of recitation. Is it permissible to go against the imam in this way?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
There is no sin on the imam if he omits the prostration of recitation (sujūd al-tilāwah), even deliberately. The maʾmūm (the one following the imam) is obliged to follow the imam in the prayer, so if the imam does not perform the prostration of recitation, it is not permissible for the follower to prostrate, because the imam is appointed only to be followed.
If the follower introduces a prostration after the imam’s salām but before his own salām, in a case where there is no prostration of forgetfulness (sujūd al-sahw), his prayer is invalidated if he knew it to be prohibited. Otherwise, he is excused on account of his ignorance and his prayer is not invalidated.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Imām al-Jamal ʿalā Fatḥ al-Wahhāb: “His statement: ‘So the omission of the hayʾāt (the non-essential sunnahs of the prayer) is not compensated for by prostration; if one prostrates for any of them deliberately, his prayer is invalidated, unless he is excused due to his ignorance.’”
Since this issue is one that is hidden from the laymen, as it is among the subtleties of knowledge, and the laymen are excused for ignorance of whatever is of such a nature, and their act of obedience is not invalidated because of it, it may be said that the prayer of one who has not acquired knowledge of this issue is not invalidated, with the necessity of learning the rulings remaining. As for after knowing it, the prayer is invalidated. And Allah Almighty knows best.

Zakah due on a woman`s jewelry?

Obligatory Zakah (obligatory charity) isn`t due on a woman`s jewelry used for adornment, provided that the value of each piece is within the range amongst common market price. And Allah Knows Best.

What is the ruling on giving Zakat al-Fitr in cash?

The default ruling is that Zakat al-Fitr should be given as the staple food of the land. In Jordan, for example, the staple food is wheat or rice, and the amount of Zakat al-Fitr is 2,500 grams per person. It is easy to give this amount of rice to the poor and needy, and this is the correct ruling according to all Islamic schools of thought.
However, Hanafi scholars have permitted giving Zakat al-Fitr as monetary value, considering it more beneficial for the poor and easier for the giver.

Is it acceptable to perform the Aqiqah for a male child by slaughtering and distributing the first sheep, and bringing the second one cooked from the restaurant?

 

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.

It is permissible to slaughter the first sheep with the intention of Aqiqah (the newborn's sacrificial offering) and distribute it entirely [uncooked], and to slaughter the second sheep and have it cooked at a restaurant to bring home for the household. However, it must be noted that it is obligatory to give some portion of the Aqiqah in charity to the poor, even if it is a small amount, though it is preferable to send the food cooked to them.

Buying a pre-cooked, ready-made sheep from a restaurant does not suffice as an Aqiqah. However, if an agreement is made with the restaurant to explicitly slaughter a sheep with the intention of Aqiqah for the newborn, and then cook it afterward, this is permissible.

In conclusion, slaughtering the sheep and distributing it with the intention of Aqiqah is permissible, and through it, the foundational prophetic tradition (Sunnah) is fulfilled. As for simply buying a cooked sheep from a restaurant that was not specifically slaughtered with the intention of Aqiqah, it will not count as such. Conversely, if the restaurant owner is commissioned (Wakala) to handle both the slaughtering and the cooking as an Aqiqah, it is valid. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

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