عربي
Home


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(62): "Making Repentance after having Purchased Stocks of a non-Islamic Bank"

Date Added : 25-02-2020

 

Resolution No.(62): "Making Repentance after having Purchased Stocks of a non-Islamic Bank"

Date: 5/3/1424 AH, corresponding to 7/3/2003

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

We have received the following question:

In 1977, I bought two hundred stocks of a non-Islamic bank and I want to atone this sin. What is the view of Sharia regarding these stocks? Should I keep them or give them to charity, but keep my principal sum? Am I allowed to give their value to one of my sons whom I`m not obliged to support, to pay for his tuition, marriage and the like. How should I calculate the difference in the value of the currency between that time and now?

The Board is of the view that she should sell all the stocks that she herself had purchased from the bank and from her husband, and then she should take only her principal sum as prescribed in the following verse: "Yet if you repent, you shall have your principal sums, not being unjust, and no injustice being done to you." {Al-Baqarah/279}. Moreover, She should distribute the remaining sum amongst the poor and needy, and she isn`t allowed to take any of it for herself unless she was poor. In this case, she may take what covers her need as a poor person. Moreover, she is allowed to spend on one of her sons whom she isn`t obliged to support as much as needed to cover the expenses of his study or marriage if he was poor.

As far as the calculation of the difference in the values of a currency between the times of purchasing the stocks and now, both values should be estimated and the total should be divided by two. And Allah Knows Best.

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Aldeen Attamimi
Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri
Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia
Dr. Yousef Ghizaan
Sheikhb Sa`id Hijjawi
Sheikh Na`iem Mujahid
Sheikh Mahmood Shwayat

 

Decision Number [ Previous | Next ]


Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the Islamic ruling on the Udhiyah (sacrificial offfering)?

 
 
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
The Udhiyah (sacrificial offering) is a Confirmed Sunnah (Sunnah Mu’akkadah) for every adult Muslim of sound mind who possesses the financial means, whether they are a resident, a traveler, or a pilgrim (Haj). This is based on the statement of the Prophet ﷺ: 'When the ten days [of Dhu al-Hijjah] begin and one of you desires to offer a sacrifice, let him not touch [cut] anything of his hair or skin' [Narrated by Muslim].
 
The point of evidence (Wajh al-Dalalah) here is that the Prophet ﷺ linked the sacrifice to the individual's will and desire by saying, 'and one of you desires.' This indicates that it is not obligatory (Wajib); had it been mandatory, he would have simply said, 'let him not touch his hair until he sacrifices' [without making it conditional upon desire].
 
Furthermore, it is narrated that Abu Bakr and Umar (may Allah be pleased with them both) would sometimes refrain from offering the sacrifice out of fear that people might mistakenly view it as an obligatory duty [Narrated by al-Bayhaqi and others with a good (Hasan) chain of transmission]. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on performing ablution (wudu') and ritual bathing (ghusl) with Zamzam water?

It is permissible to perform ablution and ritual bathing with Zamzam water. However, scholars disliked using it for cleaning after relieving oneself (istinja'). And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for women to gather in one of their homes to pray Tarawih?

Yes, it is recommended (mustahabb) for women to pray Tarawih in congregation if they gather, even if it is not in the mosque.
In fact, praying at home is better for them, as it avoids the potential concerns associated with going to the mosque.

See More