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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(7) “ Ruling on the Guardianship of an Apostate “

Date Added : 27-10-2015

Resolution No.(7) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:
      “Ruling on the Guardianship of an Apostate“

Question: Does apostasy make a father ineligible for guardianship over his family?

 

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his Family and Companions.

All members of the  Board have agreed that an apostate isn`t considered eligible for guardianship over his Muslim children, so long as he remains as such, for the following reasons:

1- The verse which reads (What means): “And never will God grant to the unbelievers a way (to triumphs) over the believers. “ {An-Nissa`/141}.

2- Article No.(2) of the Jordanian Constitution states that Islam is the official religion of the state.

3- According to Sharia, an apostate deserves to be killed unless he reverts to Islam, and this is why he takes the rulings of  the dead as far as his family affairs are concerned.

4- An apostate is no longer a member of the Muslim community, and this is why he takes the ruling of the dead.

Accordingly, once the  Sharia judge passes the verdict that Mr… is an apostate, and  separates him from his wife, then there is no reason in Sharia that prevents issuing a family register in the wife`s name, in which her minor children are included as she becomes responsible for them. This is provided that the new register indicates the lineage  of these children, and states that their father has become an apostate. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 Iftaa` Committee

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the best manner in distributing the meat of the Aqeeqah?

It is better to divide all of it as cooked meat amongst the poor and the needy. Dividing it into three portions is a Sunnah, but it is permissible to keep all of it provided that a portion, even a small one, is given to the poor and needy (one kilo for example).

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on wiping the head during ablution from behind a barrier like a headscarf (hijab)?

The obligation in ablution is to wipe some of the head; it is not a condition to wipe all of it. As for one who has a turban or headscarf on their head, it is permissible for them to wipe over it after wiping a part of their head in any place. This is easily done at the front of the head. This means the woman begins by wiping the front of her head from under the headscarf, then completes the wiping to the back of the head from over the headscarf. If the woman wipes over the headscarf on her head and the moisture reaches the scalp or some hair within the boundaries of the head, it suffices for wiping the head. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?

A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.

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