My mother inherited a share from my late father`s and brother`s property; however, the inheritance, a piece of land, wasn`t divided amongst the eligible heirs because it was hard to sell. While alive, she used say that she wanted these shares to be distributed amongst the poor and needy. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
This is a will, so we have to consider the estate she had left behind. If the piece of land, which she had willed, equals one third and less of her estate, then the will must be executed. But, if it is more than one third, then one third must be executed and the rest of the estate, if the heirs agreed, is to be executed as part of her will as well. However, if the heirs haven`t approved of that, then what remains, excluding that one third, must be divided amongst them according to the Islamic rules of inheritance. Moreover, we recommend that you pay a visit to the Iftaa` Department to make things clearer for you. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
What is the ruling on swearing a false oath by the Holy Quran?
Swearing a false oath by the Holy Quran dips the oath-taker in Hellfire, and one who had done so should turn to Allah in repentance, seek His forgiveness, give back rights to whom they belong, and pay the oath expiation.
Is it permissible for the guardian, or the father of the child to hit the latter in order to teach him/her good manners?
It is permissible for the guardian to hit his/her child for teaching them good manners once they become ten years old provided that it is done mildly, harmlessly and without intimidation. Actually, such punishment is to be employed gradually i.e. after: asking, warning, and scolding. As for the teacher, he isn`t allowed to hit the student unless the latter`s father approves of it, and it is done according to necessity without intimidation, or harm.
Does fasting on behalf of a deceased person permissible?
Fasting on belhaf of a deceased person is permissible, since the Prophet (PBUH) said: "Whoever dies while he still has some fasts to make up (of the days of Ramadan), then his heir (any of them) should fast on his behalf." [Agreed upon]. The previous answer is for making up missed obligatory fasts on behalf of the deceased. But if the fasting on behlaf of the deceased was for performing a voluntary acts of devotion such as fasting....is permissible as adopted by the majority of Muslim scholars and based on the above hadith as they stated "Every good dead intended to be on behalf of the deceased its reward will reach the latter." And Allah Knows Best.
