Is it permissible to offer the Eid sacrifice in a non-Muslim country?
Eid sacrifice is permissible anywhere, and Islamic Sharia hasn`t determined that it should be in an Islamic country, but poor Muslims should be given a share in order for it to be valid since it is an act of worship. A portion of that Eid sacrifice should be given at least to one poor Muslim, and if that wasn`t possible then the one offering it should consume it along with his family.
I have vowed that if Allah gave me what I wanted so bad, I would fast every Monday and Thursday to the rest of my life; unless there is a valid excuse hindering me from doing so. Fortunately, Allah gave me what I wanted, so I started fasting Mondays and Thursdays; however, I stopped out of laziness. What is the Sharia ruling on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Allah The Almighty described the righteous people of Jannah where He Said (What means): "They perform (their) vows, and they fear a Day whose evil flies far and wide." [Al-Insan/7]. Accordingly, you must do your best to fulfill your vow. However, if you are unable to do so, then feed a poor person for every missed day of fast (About half a JD), and if you are unable to do that, then offer expiation for breaking a vow, which is feeding ten poor Muslims (About half a JD for each), ask Allah for forgiveness and increase remembrance of Him. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible for the guardian, or the father of the child to hit the latter in order to teach him/her good manners?
It is permissible for the guardian to hit his/her child for teaching them good manners once they become ten years old provided that it is done mildly, harmlessly and without intimidation. Actually, such punishment is to be employed gradually i.e. after: asking, warning, and scolding. As for the teacher, he isn`t allowed to hit the student unless the latter`s father approves of it, and it is done according to necessity without intimidation, or harm.
I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
