Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(152): "Ruling on Tubal Ligation and Aborting some Embryos to Save others"

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(152) (17/2010)  by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Tubal Ligation and Aborting some Embryos to Save others"

Date: 2/9/1431 AH, corresponding to 12/8/2010 AD.

 

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may his peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

During its ninth session held on the above given date, the Board reviewed the following medical questions:

Question No.(1): A thirty-two-year old female patient, who has two kids, underwent endometrial resection due to recurrent bleeding. Although it is a contraceptive procedure, there is a possibility that a part of the endometrium could remain untouched. Therefore, if an ovum gets stuck in that part, it will lead to many complications, such as the placenta accrete. Thus, is it permissible to carry out tubal ligation for this patient as a contraceptive measure and to prevent the aforementioned complications?

Answer: The Sharia principle established by the evidences from the Noble Quran and the Prophetic Sunnah is that it is forbidden to use any permanent contraceptives that lead to ending one`s offspring. It has been reported by Bukhari and Muslim that the Prophet (PBUH) forbade self castration; therefore, the same rule applies to every means that stops giving birth completely or removes desire, even under the pretext of poverty or unwillingness to have children.

Urgent cases are exempted from the aforementioned rule (forbiddance); therefore, once it has been established by doctors that the pregnancy of a certain woman will jeopardize her life or inflict great damage to her health-only then-there is no harm in conducting tubal ligation.

Accordingly, conducting tubal ligation in the above mentioned case is permissible in order to rescue that woman from an imminent danger in case she became pregnant, as determined by trustworthy doctors.

Question (2): A forty-two-year old female patient who has three boys and two girls, and is thirty three weeks pregnant. She, along with her husband, is willing to undergo tubal ligation while giving birth in case the fetus remained in breech position and can be delivered only through a caesarean. It is worth mentioning that the fetus is inflicted with a congenital condition, which is the smallness of the left ventricle. It is a kind of deformation that usually leads to the death of the fetus after its delivery. She also suffers from general fatigue and high blood pressure. 

Answer: In this case, tubal ligation is impermissible because the pregnancy doesn`t jeopardize  the mother`s life and there are other methods of birth control which are easier, more available and don`t have complications that could lead to ending birth giving, according to the opinion of specialized doctors.

Question (3): A woman got pregnant by undergoing (IVF), or (test-tube-baby). After three months, it turned out that she was pregnant with seven embryos. Is it permissible to abort some of them by a lethal injection so as for others to be saved and delivered naturally?

Answer: If this large number of embryos causes serious complications to the mother or endangers her life or-mostly- aborts all the embryos, then there is no harm in aborting some of them to ward off these dangers. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Head of the Iftaa` Board, The Grand Mufti of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, His Grace Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh

Vice Head of the Iftaa` Board, Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

Dr. Yahia Al-Botoosh/ Member

His Eminence, Sheikh Sa`ied Hijjawi/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Essa

Judge Sarrie Attieh

Dr. Abdulrahman Ibbdah/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Oklah/ Member

Dr. Abduln`nassir Abu Al Bass`al/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Gharaibeh/ Member

Executive Secretary of the Iftaa` board, Dr. Ahmad Al-Has`sanat

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on a woman who takes medication to delay menstruation for fasting?

If a woman takes medication (to delay menstrual period) and does not experience menstruation, her fast is valid. However, she is not advised to do so unless there is a necessity.
If the medication harms her, even potentially, it is forbidden (haram) for her to take it.

What is the validity of the formula for sending blessings upon our master Muḥammad ﷺ: *"Allāhumma ṣalli wa sallim wa bārik ‘alā sayyidinā Muḥammad wa ‘alā ālihi, ‘adada kamāli-Llāhi wa kamā yalīqu bikamālihi"* ("O Allah, send blessings, peace, and grace upon our master Muḥammad and his family, by the number of Allah's perfection, and as befits His perfection")?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is permissible to send blessings upon our master, the Prophet ﷺ, using the formula mentioned in the question, since sending blessings upon the Prophet ﷺ is an act of devotion legislated in its basic essence, without a specific prescribed wording required outside of the formal prayer itself. It is therefore valid to perform it outside of prayer using any formula. This particular formula involves multiplying the blessings sent upon the Chosen Prophet ﷺ to the number of the perfections of Allah, the Exalted — which are limitless — so that, by Allah's permission, its reward and benefit never cease.
The meaning of "the number of Allah's perfection" is that it is without limit, making the blessings sent boundless, corresponding to His perfection, Glorified is He, which cannot be enumerated or counted. This formula is analogous to the words of our Greatest Prophet ﷺ, as related in the authentic ḥadīth narrated by Imam Muslim: the Prophet ﷺ said to Sayyidah Juwayriyyah (raḍiyallāhu ‘anhā): "Indeed, I said four phrases after you [left], three times, which, if weighed against everything you have said since this morning, would outweigh them: Subḥān Allāhi wa biḥamdihi, ‘adada khalqihi, wa riḍā nafsihi, wa zinata ‘arshihi, wa midāda kalimātihi" (Glory be to Allah, and praise be to Him, by the number of His creation, by His pleasure, by the weight of His Throne, and by the extent of His words). And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on praying while wearing shoes?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

There is no sin for a Muslim to perform prayer while wearing their sandals or shoes, provided they are free from any impurities (najasa). It was narrated that Anas bin Malik (may Allah be pleased with him) was asked: 'Did the Prophet ﷺ pray in his sandals?' He replied: 'Yes.'" (Related by Al-Bukhari).

It is stated in Fath al-Bari (Vol.1/P.494) by Ibn Hajar (may Allah have mercy on him): "Regarding the phrase 'praying in his sandals,' Ibn Battal said: 'This is understood to apply as long as there is no impurity on them; furthermore, this is considered one of the legal concessions (rukhas)." And Allah the Almighty knows best.