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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(78): “Ruling on Selling Gold Jewels for Native Gold of Unequal Weight“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(78) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

“Ruling on Selling Gold Jewels for  Native Gold of Unequal Weight“

Date: 27/4/1425 AH, corresponding to 16/6/2004 AD.

 

 

Question:

What is the ruling when a goldsmith offers gold jewels of a particular weight as a loan to a dealer of jewels in return for a particular wage, then the latter settles that loan by giving the former an equal amount of Native gold by installments, in addition to the agreed upon wage ?

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

The Board is of the view that it is permissible to sell formed gold for Native gold of unequal weight, considering the extra weight as a compensation for the workmanship, whether the sale was by cash or by installments (1) unless this gold was intended for its price, and this is the view adopted by Ibn Taymyah, Ibn Al-Qayiim, Alhasan, Ibrahim, Al-Sho`abi, Moaweiyah Bin Abi Sufian and Al-Hasan Al-Bassri.

Evidences supporting this view are as follows:

1- Formed  gold(final product)used for women`s ornament is classified, through the allowed workmanship, amongst the permitted manufactured items such as clothes and goods, and as it isn`t intended for its price and is set for trading, there is no harm in selling it for Native gold of an unequal weight.

2- Formed gold has an advantage over Native gold because of the workmanship; therefore, it is permissible to sell it for Native gold of unequal weight, where the difference in weight compensates for the workmanship.

3- Banning such a sale does harm to the interests of craftsmen, because this means that they stop producing golden ornaments as they receive nothing in return for their workmanship in case they sold these for an equal amount of Native gold.

4- Prophetic narrations prohibit selling gold for gold of unequal weight in case it was intended for its price, and this is mentioned in the Hadith narrated by Abu Hurairah: “Gold is to be paid for by gold with equal weight, like for like, and silver is to be paid for by silver with equal weight, like for like. He who made an addition to it or demanded an addition dealt in usury.” {Muslim}.This is because the reason behind prohibiting usury in gold and silver is intending their prices, so once they aren`t intended as such, it becomes permissible to sell gold for gold of equal weight, and the same applies to silver.

The prohibition also applies to using utensils made of gold or silver as well as wearing gold by men since the Prophet (PBUH) forbade such things.

Moreover, the prohibition extends to other items which aren`t made by man such as dates, for good and bad dates are the creation of Allah, so selling dates for dates of unequal weight is forbidden.

This is indicated in the Hadith narrated by Abu Saeid Alkhudari and Abu Hurairah (May Allah Be Pleased with them): “Allah's Messenger (PBUH) appointed somebody as a governor of Khaibar. That governor brought to him an excellent kind of dates (from Khaibar). The Prophet (PBUH) asked: "Are all the dates of Khaibar like this?" He replied: "By Allah, no, O Allah's Messenger (PBUH)! But we barter one Sa of this (type of dates) for two Sas of dates of ours and two Sas of it for three of ours." Allah's Messenger (PBUH) said: "Do not do so (as that is a kind of usury) but sell the mixed dates (of inferior quality) for money, and then buy good dates with that money." {Bukhari}.

Although the Board is of the view that such an act is permissible, it recommends avoiding  it, save when deemed necessary.

Note (1): The transaction mentioned in the above question contradicts the Prophet`s Hadith: “Don't sell gold for gold unless equal in weight “ {Bukhari&Muslim}.

This Hadith mentions gold in general; therefore, the questioner should first sell the formed gold for dinars, then buy the gold that he wants  in order to avoid usury as mentioned in the Hadith of Abu Sa'eed Al-Khudri. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Iftaa` Board
Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izzaldeen Al-Tamimi
Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri
Dr. Abdulsalam  Al-Abbadi
Dr. Yousef Ghyzaan
Dr. Moh. Abu Yahia
Sheikh Sae`id Hijjawi
Sheikh Abdulkareem Khasawneh

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the meaning of the Prophetic statement that a boy is held in pledge (murtahan) for his 'aqīqah?

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
The first interpretation: That if the boy dies in infancy without an 'aqīqah having been performed on his behalf, he will not intercede for his parents on the Day of Resurrection. This is the position of Imam Aḥmad ibn Ḥanbal, and Imam al-Khaṭṭābī concurred with him, stating: "The finest of what has been said regarding this matter is the position adopted by Aḥmad ibn Ḥanbal." — [Fatḥ al-Bārī by Ibn Ḥajar,{Vol.9/P.594]
The second interpretation: That the child is likened to a pledged object (marhūn) — one from which full benefit and enjoyment cannot be derived until it is redeemed. A blessing is only made complete upon the one blessed when they fulfil the obligation of gratitude (shukr), and the prescribed expression of gratitude for this particular blessing is what the Prophet ﷺ established as Sunnah — namely, the slaughtering of the 'aqīqah on behalf of the newborn as an act of thankfulness to Allah the Almighty and as a supplication for the wellbeing and safety of the child. This is the position of Mullā 'Alī al-Qārī. See: [Mirqāt al-Mafātīḥ Sharḥ Mishkāt al-Maṣābīḥ, Vol.7/P.2688]
And Allah Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for a woman who has become pure before the end of forty days of confinement to perform different acts of worship? and is it lawful for her husband to have sex with her?

Once postpartum bleeding ceases and she is certain that it won`t happen again, she becomes pure, and so she should perform Ghusl (ritual bath), pray, and fast. She can also have sex with her husband even before the end of (40) days because the minimum of postpartum bleeding is a moment, and the maximum is (60) days. However, the postpartum bleeding for the majority of women is (40) days, but this does not apply to rest of them.

Is the one offering the sacrifice liable if its meat spoils?

Praise be to Allah, and prayers and peace be upon our Master the Messenger of Allah.
 
If the meat (of the sacrifice) spoils due to the negligence of the one offering the sacrifice in preserving it, or due to improper storage, then he is liable to compensate for the portion due to the poor (which is estimated as half a kilogram of meat). If the sacrifice was a vowed (mandatory) one, then he is liable for all of it.
 
However, if he was not negligent, then there is no liability upon him, because its ruling is the ruling of a trust (like an item left in someone's care). And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on purchasing sacrificial animals and authorizing their slaughter via telephone?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is preferable for the one offering a sacrifice (udhiyah) to slaughter the animal himself, in adherence to the Sunnah, or to be present at the slaughter if possible.
 
It is valid to authorize a butcher to purchase a sacrificial animal on his behalf and slaughter it, regardless of whether the animal is owned by the butcher or the butcher is acting as an agent in its sale—according to the Hanbali school—provided that the butcher specifically designates and purchases the animal for the person offering the sacrifice before slaughtering it. And Allah Almighty knows best.

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