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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Date Added : 02-11-2015

Resolution No.(41): “Killing an Animal by the Violent Blow Gun“
Date: 6/7/1419AH corresponding to 26/10/1998.

What is the ruling of Sharia on anesthetizing cows prior to slaughtering them by using a special gun, where an iron bar penetrates the head of the animal and destroys its nervous system, then the animal loses consciousness, so it must be slaughtered by cutting its neck veins because anesthesia could harm it and cause its death, depending on the place of the blow?

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

The Board is of the view that using the above method is forbidden in Sharia because after receiving a violent blow with an iron bar, the animal`s life becomes unstable and could die before slaughtering in case the blow hit its respiratory center or the butcher didn`t slaughter it instantly. In this case, this animal becomes forbidden because it takes the ruling of dead meat for Allah, the Almighty Says (what means): “Forbidden to you (for food) are: dead meat, blood, the flesh of swine, and that on which hath been invoked the name of other than Allah. that which hath been killed by strangling, or by a violent blow, or by a headlong fall, or by being gored to death; that which hath been (partly) eaten by a wild animal; unless ye are able to slaughter it (in due form); that which is sacrificed on stone (altars); (forbidden) also is the division (of meat) by raffling with arrows: that is impiety.“ {Al-Mai`dah/3}. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

Iftaa` Board

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Al-Deen Al-Tamimi

       Dr. Mohamoud Al-Bakheet

Dr. Yousef Gheezaan

 Dr. Umar Al-Ashkhaar

     Dr. Mahmoud Al-Sartawi

Sheikh Saeid Hijjawi

            Sheikh Mahmoud Shwayaat

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is Zakah (obligatory charity) due on land intended for selling?

Yes, lands intended for trade are valued, and Zakah is paid according to their estimated value after a lunar year had lapsed, but if the owner didn`t pay the due Zakah, then he should do so after selling them.

I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
 
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
 

What is the ruling on a man leading his sisters in obligatory prayer, or Taraweeh prayer (Night prayer in Ramadan)?

The prayer of the man who leads his wife, or sisters in prayer is valid, but it is more rewarding for him to offer obligatory prayer in the mosque. And Allah Knows Best.

Is it permissible to make ablution without answering the call of nature after waking up?

Washing front and back openings (Istinjaa`) is not a condition for the validity of ablution because it is done to remove Najaasah (impurity), thus if there is no Najaasah, there is no need for that, and then it is permissible to make ablution without answering the call of nature. However, prayer is invalidated if there is Najaasah on the anus ,or the front opening, so it (Najaasah) must be removed for the prayer to become valid, and not the ablution.

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