Is everyone obligated to follow the fatwas of his country, and if we adopt the fatwas of scholars of other countries, is it considered a sin?
: It is permissible for one who do not specialize in Shari `ah sciences to apply the opinions of renowned scholars whom he trusts ,whether they be from his own country or not ,but if the scholars don`t arrive at a consensus concerning a certain matter then he must consult someone who is more knowledgeable than himself .It is preferable that you(the inquirer) specify the case of your interest ,so that we could give you a more specific answer since some scholars deliver fatwas based on atypical opinions which should not be applied no matter what .And Allah ,The Exalted, knows best.
I have concluded my marriage contract at a Sharia court; however, one day I was talking to my fiancée over the phone and she got on my nerves leading me to utter one divorce. This is knowing that I can`t tell my her father because he is very strict and will not accept that at all. What is the best course of action that I should pursue in this situation?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
When divorce takes place before the consummation of marriage it is called Ba`in divorce (Minor irrevocable divoce), so your wife is considered unlawful to you until you conduct a new marriage contract and pay Mahr , and you should visit the Iftaa` Department in order to know the correct Fatwa. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
[1] Minor irrevocable divorce [Ar.Talaq al-Ba'in Binona Soghra]: It is a divorce where the husband cannot take his ex-wife back unless with her consent, conducting a new marriage contract and paying new bridal wealth [Ar.Mahr].
[1] In Islam, a Mahr is the obligation, in the form of money or possessions paid by the groom, to the bride at the time of Islamic marriage. While the Mahr is often money, it can also be anything agreed upon by the bride such as jewelry, home goods, furniture, a dwelling or some land.
What should a person, who delayed making up missed fasts of last Ramadhaan due to the continuance of the same excuse, do?
It is permissible for one, whose excuse for not making up missed fasts of last Ramadhaan has continued, to delay fasting until the excuse ceases to exist, and he is considered neither sinful, nor obligated to pay a ransom.
Is it permissible to make up for missed fast after the beginning of the second half of the month of Sha`ban(the month before Ramadhaan) ?
Yes, it is permissible, but one who had missed fasts should hasten to make up for them. As for the Hadith mentioned in this regard, the prohibition is for offering absolute voluntary fasting.
