Is it permissible for the mother to give her children from the Zakah(obligatory charity) of her money?
It is permissible for the mother to give her children from the Zakah of her money if they are Zakah-eligible recipients, and she isn`t obliged to provide for them.
I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
My mother inherited a share from my late father`s and brother`s property; however, the inheritance, a piece of land, wasn`t divided amongst the eligible heirs because it was hard to sell. While alive, she used say that she wanted these shares to be distributed amongst the poor and needy. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
This is a will, so we have to consider the estate she had left behind. If the piece of land, which she had willed, equals one third and less of her estate, then the will must be executed. But, if it is more than one third, then one third must be executed and the rest of the estate, if the heirs agreed, is to be executed as part of her will as well. However, if the heirs haven`t approved of that, then what remains, excluding that one third, must be divided amongst them according to the Islamic rules of inheritance. Moreover, we recommend that you pay a visit to the Iftaa` Department to make things clearer for you. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a pious Muslim woman to stay with her husband who had quit praying out of laziness?
Quitting prayer is one of the major grave sins that come after disbelieving in Allah, but the wife of such a person isn`t considered divorced, rather, she should exert all her efforts in order to bring him back to the way of Islam. However, if his sin is likely to lure her from the way of Islam, then she had better separate from him by lawful means such as Mokhal`aa(When a wife pays a compensation for her husband in return for divorcing her). Moreover, if she exercises patience, and remains steadfast on her faith, then there is no harm in doing that.
