How long is the` Iddah(waiting period) of a divorced woman?
If a woman is pregnant at the time of divorce, then her 'Iddah (waiting period) expires when she gives birth to the baby. If she is in a state of menstruation, then her `Iddah expires when she finishes three menses. However, if she doesn`t have menses, then her `Iddah expires after three months.
It was found out that a man divorced his wife for the third time in 2005, but they continued cohabiting as man and wife. However, when they realized that what they were doing was unlawful, they came the Iftaa` Department in 2009 and were told that they can`t be together. What is the position of Sharia on this couple?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Her Iddah* period starts after the third divorce. As for the continued cohabitation, it is unlawful because being ignorant about the rulings of Sharia while in Dar Al-Islam* is no valid excuse. If a baby came as the fruit of this unlawful consummation of marriage, then a judge of Sharia has the final say in this regard because lineage is a serious matter. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* ʿIddah: a specified period of time that must elapse before a Muslim widow or divorcee may legitimately remarry. The Qurʾān (2:228) prescribes that a menstruating woman have three monthly periods before contracting a new marriage; the required delay for a nonmenstruating woman is three lunar months.
* Dar Al-Islam: designates a territory where Muslims are free to practice their religion, though this often implies the implementation of Islamic law, whereas Dar al-Harb represents those lands ruled by non-believers
Is it permissible for my brother, whom I had suckled, to conclude a marriage contract between his daughter and my son?
Such marriage is impermissible since one`s nephew in this situation is considered an uncle to one`s daughter; consequently, he is the brother of her father by suckling. In such cases, the people in question should go to court to prove the suckling.
Is it incumbent on a wife whose husband hasn`t gone to bed with her(for sexual intercourse) for many years to observe `Iddah(waiting period) upon his death?
Upon the death of the husband, a wife is obliged to observe the `Iddah even if he hadn`t slept with her because she inherits him.
