Is it incumbent on a wife whose husband hasn`t gone to bed with her(for sexual intercourse) for many years to observe `Iddah(waiting period) upon his death?
Upon the death of the husband, a wife is obliged to observe the `Iddah even if he hadn`t slept with her because she inherits him.
Is it permissible to give the expiation due on the vow of anger to one person?
The expiation for the vow of anger-and that of the oath-is to be given to (10) needy persons, or a needy family of ten individuals, but giving it to one person is impermissible.
Has Islam made it incumbent on us to give our children particular names?
No, it hasn`t, but it is desirable that we give them good names.
A man has married a second wife and deprived the first from provision and overnight stay. He spent most of his time and wealth on his second wife. After sometime, the latter got sick and was diagnosed with breast cancer, which made him forsake her in bed and return to his first wife. What is the position of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It is forbidden for a woman to forsake her husband in bed without a lawful excuse since this is one of the mutual rights of spouses. When the wife abstains from making love to her husband without a lawful excuse, she is considered sinful. This is because the Prophet (PBUH) said: "If a woman spends the night deserting her husband's bed (does not sleep with him), then the angels send their curses on her till she comes back (to her husband)." [Agreed upon]. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.