Oaths: Questions & Answers

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Summarized Fatawaa

I work at a company that provides cash advances of 800 dinars, 1000 dinars, or 1200 dinars, depending on the employee’s years of service. An administrative fee of 40 dinars is deducted from the amount in the first month, and the remaining amount is repaid in installments. What is the ruling on this, knowing that the deducted amount (40 dinars) is fixed?

We fear that the deducted amount may be a means of circumventing interest (Riba). If the deducted amount is equal to or less than the actual administrative expenses, then there is no issue, as some scholars permit the borrower to bear the costs of documenting and managing the loan. However, piety suggests refraining from taking this loan under these conditions, as dealing with private individuals and companies is not the same as dealing with the state, which spends from the public treasury. And Allah Knows Best.

Is it incumbent on a father to cover the marriage costs of his son if the latter couldn`t afford them?

The son should seek the help of his relatives in order to convince his father to do the aforesaid, and the father should make sure that his son doesn`t commit fornication through helping him to get married, and Allah will reward him for doing so.

What is the ruling on uncovering the eyes while wearing a Khimar?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

According to Sharia, a woman`s clothing shouldn`t be attractive so as to prevent sedition. However, it is better for a woman to be on the safe side and avoid such clothes. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

If a woman makes a vow to slaughter a sheep, and her husband is the one who buys it for her from his own money, and he says: "It is for you until you fulfill your vow with it," Is this permissible, or must she buy it herself from her own money?

If her husband gave her the sheep as a donation for the puprose of fulfilling the oath she made and was slaughtered by the wife or the husband on her behalf then the vow she made is fulfilled. And Allah Knows Best.

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Oaths: Questions & Answers

Author : Dr. Hassan Abu_Arqoub

Date Added : 30-11-2022

Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

Oaths and their Kaffara (atonement) are most needed in people`s daily life; therefore, I have adapted examples on this subject from Al-Shirbini`s book [Moghni Al-Mohtaj].

Definition:

An oath is swearing by Allah or any of His attributes or names.

What makes an oath effective?

An oath doesn`t become effective unless the person swears by Allah or any of His attributes. For example, (By Allah) (Wallah) or by the Lord of the Worlds (Wa Rab Al-Alameen).

What is the ruling on swearing by other than Allah?

It is disliked to swear by other than Allah. The evidence on this is that Ibn 'Umar (May Allah be pleased with them) said: The Prophet (PBUH) said, "Allah has prohibited you from taking an oath by your fathers. He who must take an oath, may do so by swearing in the Name of Allah or he should remain silent." [Agreed upon].

What did the Prophet (PBUH) mean by {He, who swears by anyone or anything other than Allah, has indeed committed an act of Kufr or Shirk "}?

First: One who swears by anyone or anything other than Allah has indeed committed an act similar to that of the infidels. This Hadith discourages such ugly acts.

Second: One who believes that what he had sworn by is as glorified as Allah has committed Kufr and Shirk.

Is the oath of one who said (By the right of Allah) considered effective?

If the swearer intended (By the right of Allah) as an oath, then it is definitely an oath, and the same is true if he made it unconditional, without intention. This is because this phrase is often used in oaths, so it is considered as such.

Is the oath of the one who swears by the Quran considered effective?

Swearing by the Glorious Quran is considered an oath because the Quran is the word of Allah, and His word is one of His attributes. He The Almighty Says (What means): "Of some apostles We have already told thee the story; of others We have not;- and to Moses God spoke direct;-" [An-Nisaa`/164]. We have stated earlier that an oath becomes effective when any of Allah`s attributes is used.

If a person said: (By Allah, I will do so and so), is his oath considered effective?

Using one of the letters of oath (Qasam/Yameen), such as (Baa`, Wawo, or Taa`), render an oath effective, even without making the intention of an oath. Be that in the nominative or accusative.

If a person said: (I swear to you by Allah) or (I ask you by Allah to do so and so), is this oath considered effective and who is liable for it?

If the person taking the oath intended it as such then it is considered an oath. In addition, the addressee is encouraged to fulfill that oath if it doesn`t involve anything prohibited or disliked. If the addressee didn`t fulfill it, then the person who took it is liable for atonement. However, If his intention is/isn`t to make the addressee the one swearing by Allah; rather, he meant Allah`s intercession or made the oath unconditional, then this isn`t considered an oath, and neither the person taking the oath nor the addressee is liable for the Kaffara of breaking an oath.

What is the ruling on one who says (If I do so and so, then I`m a Jew or a Christian)?

First: This isn`t considered an oath because neither Allah`s name nor any of His attributes is mentioned.

Second: The person taking it isn`t liable for Kaffara.

Third: Swearing by such words is a sin and uttering them is prohibited.

Fourth: All the above is in case the person is taking the oath (If I do so and so, then I`m a Jew or a Christian) to distance themselves from something. However, if he meant that he accepts to be a Jew or something within that meaning, then he is immediately considered a Kafir (Infidel).

What is the ruling if the person intended to take an oath to do something but said something else by mistake?

This is considered a false oath and no Kaffara is due on him.

What is the ruling if a person entered and his friend was lying down and the latter wanted to stand for him out of respect, but the former said: "By Allah, don`t stand" but he stood?

This is considered a false oath and no Kaffara is due on him.

What is the ruling when a person says: "By Allah, I have/haven`t done this or that" and was intentionally lying?

This is perjury oath that immerses its taker in sin or into Hell, and it is among the major sins and a Kaffara must be paid.

What is the ruling on the person who takes an oath to leave a duty/obligation or do something forbidden?

One who takes an oath to leave a religious obligation, such as saying: (I swear by Allah I won`t pray Fajir) or swore by Allah to commit what is forbidden, such as saying: (I swear by Allah I will accept bribe), is disobedient to Allah in both forms. Therefore, he must break that oath by performing the obligation and refraining from the forbidden, in addition to paying a Kaffara, as not doing so makes him in state of disobedience to Allah.

What is the Kaffara for an oath and why is it an obligation?

The Kaffara for an oath is freeing a slave, feeding ten poor persons or clothing them of the same standard you do for yourself. If you can`t, then you should fast three days, and it isn`t conditioned that they be fasted successively. As for the reason the Kaffara is an obligation, it is for both the oath and the breaking of the oath.

Is it permissible to offer Kaffara before breaking the oath?

Is it permissible for the person to offer Kaffara (freeing a slave, feeding ten poor persons or clothing them of the same standard you do for yourself) before breaking his oath. As for fasting, it can`t be offered before breaking the oath.

For example, if he said: (By Allah I won`t enter the house of my maternal aunt), but later wanted to enter to maintain ties of kinship, then he is allowed to feed or clothe ten poor persons before her enters her house. He is also allowed to feed or clothe ten poor persons after her enters her house. However, if he can`t afford the food or the clothing, then he can`t fast until after her enters her house and breaks his oath.

What food and clothing?

One mud (600 gr. of wheat or rice) for each poor person. According to the Hanafi school of thought, it is permissible to give the monetary value of this mud (60 piasters for each poor person). As for the clothing, it could be shirts, trousers, garment, Thawb, and it isn`t conditioned that the sizeof the garment of suits the recipient.

What is the ruling when one says (By Allah I won`t put on these two garments), but wore one? Or said: (By Allah I won`t talk to these two men), but spoke to one of them?

The oath isn`t broken if the person taking it wore one garment or spoke to one man, because his oath is intended for both, but that wasn`t the case since he neither wore both garments nor spoke to both men.

What is the ruling on the person who said: (By Allah I will neither wear this garment nor that) or (By Allah I will neither speak to this man nor that)?

The oath is broken by wearing any of the garments or speaking to any of the men because the oath taker repeated the negation letter (لا), and this repetition made each act intended by the oath.

What is the ruling on the person who said: (By Allah I will eat these two loaves of bread) or (By Allah I will speak to these two men)?

If he ate the two loaves or spoke to the two men, his oath isn`t broken. However, if he ate a loaf or spoke to one man, then his oath is broken.

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for the woman who is observing Iddah after her husband`s death to sit with her daughter`s suitor, although their marriage contract hasn`t been concluded yet?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

A suitor who hasn`t concluded the marriage contract isn`t a Mahram*, so he must be treated as such. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

* The period a woman must observe after the death of her husband or after a divorce, during which she may not marry another man.

* In Islam, a mahram is a member of one's family with whom marriage would be considered haram, concealment purdah, or concealment of the body with hijab, is not obligatory; and with whom, if he is an adult male, she may be escorted during a journey, although an escort may not be obligatory.

What should the man, whose wife wasn`t on good terms with his mother, do?

Both the mother and the wife have rights on the man in question; therefore, each should be given her rights justly, and he should resort to wisdom to please both of them and make reconciliation. And Allah Knows Best.

Are all the children of a suckling woman considered brothers to the strange child whom their mother had breastfed, or just to the one who had suckled with him?

All the children of the woman who had suckled a strange child are considered his/her brothers and sisters.

Is it permissible to pay the expiation of an oath to a charitable party as it feeds the poor and needy such as Tkiyet Um Ali?

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and May His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.

There is no harm on authorizing someone to handle the expiation of another to the poor and needy, since Shafiee's jurists stated that authorizing someone for the purpose of distributing Zakah, expiation and vow is permissible as stated in [Mughni Al-Muhtajj, vol.3 pp.237]. At last, the intention of the person who intends to authorize someone else suffices in this regard. And Allah Knows Best.