A person vowed to slaughter a sacrificial animal. Is he permitted to eat from it?
If the vowed sacrificial animal was for the sake of Allah, and the one who vowed didn't specify then its meat should be distributed only among the poor and needy similar to distributing Zakah of Al-Fiter so neither him nor his dependents permitted to eat from; however if his vow was to made a banquet and invititing his relatives and others; then he must bring up as much as he can from its meat for them. In addition, he is permitted to eat from it in a reasonable basis. And Allah Knows Best.
In the last verse of Surah At-Tin, Allah Says (What means): "Is Allah not the most just of judges?" [At-Tin/8]. Is it permissible for us, while performing congregational prayer, to respond after the Imam recites it by saying: "Indeed, and I am among those who bear witness to that." ?
It is recommended for the worshipper to say 'Indeed' (Bala) silently after reciting or hearing the verse (/What means): "Is Allah not the most just of judges?" [At-Tin/8]. This is part of reflecting on the Quran during its recitation or listening, as Allah Says (What means): "Then do they not reflect upon the Quran, or are there locks upon [their] hearts?" (Muhammad: 24). Doing so helps in achieving humility and focus in prayer. And Allah Knows Best
Is it permissible for a Muslim woman to uncover her hair in the presence of a Christian woman?
All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah and that Muhammad, sallallahu ‘alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.
According to the reliable opinion of the Shafie School of Thought, this isn`t permissible. However, some scholars stated that it is permissible for a woman to uncover what she usually uncovers while doing housework, but this differs from one place to another where some women uncover their hair while some don`t. However, this is provided that a woman doesn`t uncover her hair in the presence of non-Mahram men (Men permissible for a woman to marry). And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
I have a question regarding the deferred portion of the dowry (Mahr)*. Is the wife entitled to it only upon divorce or she can claim it even if divorce hasn`t taken place? Moreover, does she have the right to claim this portion after death of husband, even if he didn`t divorce her before that?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
In the marriage contract, it is recorded that the deferred portion of the dowry is due upon divorce or death, whatever comes first. If divorce took place first then the woman is entitled to it and if the husband died this amount must be paid from his estate. On the other hand, if the woman died then the husband becomes liable for this portion and it becomes part of the woman`s estate. We advise every husband to give this portion to his wife while alive because it is a right of hers. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* In Islam, a Mahr is the obligation, in the form of money or possessions paid by the groom, to the bride at the time of Islamic marriage (payment also has circumstances on when and how to pay). While the mahr is often money, it can also be anything agreed upon by the bride such as jewelry, home goods, furniture, a dwelling or some land. Mahr is typically specified in the marriage contract signed upon marriage.
