My husband wanted to sell a piece of land that was his own, but his father insisted that he transfer the land in his (the father’s) name so that he could sell it at a higher price. Then, my husband and his father would split the price. After my father-in-law sold the land, he denied everything and refused to acknowledge my husband’s right. My father-in-law passed away a year ago, and my husband’s brothers divided the inheritance, refusing to acknowledge that this land was a trust held by their father for my husband until it was sold. Are they sinful for knowingly denying that the land belongs to my husband, and what is the ruling on praying against them?
All perfect praise be to Alalh, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
Among the rights of the deceased upon their heirs are: preparing them for burial at death, settling their debts, returning people’s rights to them, executing their will, and then dividing their estate. What was mentioned in the question falls under the rights of others, even if they are among the heirs, and the deceased is not absolved of it unless it is returned to its rightful owners. This is because Allah, Almighty, forbids consuming others' wealth/properties unjustly. However, do not give up on seeking a solution by involving righteous and well - respected individuals who may have influence over them, in the hope that Allah guides them to goodness and correctness. As for supplicating against them, the prayer of the oppressed is not rejected, even if the oppressed person is not a Muslim. And Allah knows best.
Is it permissible for a menopausal woman who has blood discharges to fast?
If she reached the age of menopause, and her menses stopped, but later she saw blood discharges that lasted a complete day and night (24) hours, then it is menstrual blood. Still, if these blood discharges lasted less than a complete day and night (24) hours, then it is not menstrual blood, but it is bleeding outside the monthly period (Istihadah), and it does not prevent her from prayer and fast, but she has to make ablution for every prayer.
Is it permissible to offer Tahajjud prayer after Witr prayer?
It is permissible to offer voluntary prayer after Witr (An odd number prayer performed between Isha and Fajr) prayer. However, it is desirable that the night prayer be ended with Witr. Therefore, it is desirable for one, who thought that he was most probably going to wake up at night in order to offer Tahajjud, to offer Witr after it, but one, who fears that he might not wake up, should offer Witr before going to bed.
Is a person who is in a state of Janabah (major ritual impurity due to having a marital intercourse, ejaculation, menstruation, and post-delivery impurities) sinful if he/she goes about his/her daily life activities in that state i.e. without making Ghusl (ritual bath)?
It goes without saying that a Muslim should always be in a state of ritual purity so as to be able to perform prayers and recite Quran. It is from Sunnah (Prophetic tradition) that a Muslim hastens to make Ghusl from Janabah, but he/she is not sinful in case he/she delayed that provided that he/she doesn`t miss prayers. However, it is permissible for him/her to go about their daily activities while in a state of Janabah, but had better bathe in order not to miss any prayer.