What is the ruling of Sharia when husband kicks the wife out of his house without a lawful excuse? Moreover, in such case, when she stays at her parents's house for several months, is she allowed to claim maintenance through a Sharia court?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It isn`t permissible to kick wife out of house save for a valid reason since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "O ye who believe! Ye are forbidden to inherit women against their will. Nor should ye treat them with harshness, that ye may Take away part of the dower ye have given them,-except where they have been guilty of open lewdness; on the contrary live with them on a footing of kindness and equity. If ye take a dislike to them it may be that ye dislike a thing, and God brings about through it a great deal of good." [An-Nisa`/19]. In addition, it is the duty of the husband to provide for his wife and children in kindness, and this includes food, garment and residence. Moreover, dialogue and supplication are the best means for solving marital problems; however, the wronged party may resort to court. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is a person who is in a state of Janabah (major ritual impurity due to having a marital intercourse, ejaculation, menstruation, and post-delivery impurities) sinful if he/she goes about his/her daily life activities in that state i.e. without making Ghusl (ritual bath)?
It goes without saying that a Muslim should always be in a state of ritual purity so as to be able to perform prayers and recite Quran. It is from Sunnah (Prophetic tradition) that a Muslim hastens to make Ghusl from Janabah, but he/she is not sinful in case he/she delayed that provided that he/she doesn`t miss prayers. However, it is permissible for him/her to go about their daily activities while in a state of Janabah, but had better bathe in order not to miss any prayer.
What is the ruling o associations (Whereas a person who have money buys a commodity for a person and and gets a profit on it)?
It is permissible for a person to buy a commodity for someone's else and have a profit/loss on it
If someone unknowingly bought stolen cement multiple times, and if the seller is revealed, will my husband bear any sin?
The sin of the theft falls on the one who stole. However, the person who used the cement must pay its value to the rightful owner from whom it was stolen, and then seek reimbursement from the seller. If the thief compensates the rightful owner, there is no liability on the person who used the cement. And Allah Almighty Knows Best.
