Is the `Iddah (waiting period) of the divorced effective from the time the divorce took place, or from the time of registering it at the court?
It is considered effective from the very moment her divorce took place, but not from the time of registering it at the court. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a woman to conclude her marriage without the approval of her family?
No marriage is permissible without the presence of a guardian and two trust worthy witnesses, and the woman whose family had denied her right in getting married to a God-fearing, financially and physically capable man should go to the court.
Is it permissible for a suitor to go out with his fiancé upon the conclusion of the marriage contract?
Upon the conclusion of the marriage contract, the woman becomes lawful for her husband. However, the customary practice should be observed in this regard since rights could be lost in case of divorce, or death.
Is everyone obligated to follow the fatwas of his country, and if we adopt the fatwas of scholars of other countries, is it considered a sin?
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Wolrds and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
It is permissible for the person who isn't specialized in Sharia sciences to apply the opinions of renowned scholars whom he trusts ,whether they be from his own country or not ,but if the scholars have different opnions regarding a certain issue/matter, then he must consult someone who is more knowledgeable than himself .It is preferable that you (the questioner) specify the case of your interest ,so that we could give you a more specific answer since some scholars deliver fatwas based on illogical/atypical opinions which should not be applied no matter what .And Allah The Exalted Knows Best.